Nursing Elites

1. A client with known coronary artery disease (CAD) begins to experience chest pain while getting out of bed. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Obtain a prescription for pain medication.
• B. Have the client stop and lie back down in bed.
• C. Report the complaint to the healthcare provider.
• D. Instruct the client to continue getting out of bed and into a chair.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client with CAD experiences chest pain, it indicates myocardial ischemia. The nurse should have the client stop the activity and lie back down in bed to reduce the heart's oxygen demand, decrease myocardial workload, and prevent further ischemia. This action helps in improving blood flow to the heart and can potentially alleviate the chest pain. Option A is incorrect as pain medication should not be the initial action for chest pain in CAD. Option C is incorrect because the nurse should first intervene directly to address the chest pain. Option D is incorrect as continuing the activity can worsen the myocardial ischemia and chest pain.

2. The healthcare provider has reinforced dietary instructions to a client with coronary artery disease. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the dietary instructions?

• A. I should substitute eggs and milk for meat.
• B. I will eliminate all cholesterol and fat from my diet.
• C. I should routinely use polyunsaturated oils in my diet.
• D. I need to consider becoming a strict vegetarian.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Using polyunsaturated oils, such as vegetable oils, can help manage cholesterol levels and reduce the risk of heart disease. This dietary change is beneficial for individuals with coronary artery disease as it promotes heart health by improving cholesterol profiles. Substituting eggs and milk for meat (Choice A) may not address the overall dietary needs for managing the condition. Completely eliminating all cholesterol and fat from the diet (Choice B) is not necessary as the body needs some healthy fats. Considering becoming a strict vegetarian (Choice D) is a personal choice and may not necessarily be required to manage coronary artery disease.

3. When teaching a client with a new prescription for spironolactone, which instruction should the nurse include?

• A. Increase your intake of potassium-rich foods.
• B. Avoid consuming grapefruit juice.
• C. Take the medication with food.
• D. Monitor for signs of hyperkalemia.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to monitor for signs of hyperkalemia when taking spironolactone since it is a potassium-sparing diuretic. Hyperkalemia is a potential adverse effect due to the medication's mechanism of action. Advising the client to increase potassium-rich foods (Choice A) would be incorrect as it can further elevate potassium levels, which could lead to hyperkalemia. Avoiding grapefruit juice (Choice B) is not directly related to spironolactone use. Though taking the medication with food (Choice C) can help reduce gastrointestinal upset, it is not the most critical instruction when initiating spironolactone therapy.

4. The client with a new prescription for warfarin (Coumadin) is receiving teaching from the LPN/LVN. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the medication?

• A. I will avoid eating foods high in vitamin K, like spinach and broccoli.
• B. I will take aspirin instead of acetaminophen for headaches while on this medication.
• C. I can stop taking the medication once my symptoms improve.
• D. I will double my dose if I miss a dose to catch up.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Clients prescribed with warfarin (Coumadin) need to maintain a consistent intake of vitamin K and avoid sudden increases in foods rich in vitamin K as it can interfere with the effectiveness of the medication. Choice A, 'I will avoid eating foods high in vitamin K, like spinach and broccoli,' is the correct statement indicating an understanding of the medication. This choice demonstrates knowledge of the importance of consistent vitamin K intake to prevent fluctuations in warfarin's effectiveness. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Choice B suggests a substitution that is not advised without consulting a healthcare provider. Choice C is incorrect as stopping warfarin suddenly can lead to serious health risks. Choice D is unsafe and incorrect since doubling the dose is not the correct action if a dose is missed.

5. The client is receiving anticoagulant therapy for atrial fibrillation. Which laboratory test should be monitored to determine the effectiveness of the therapy?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR)
• B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
• C. Platelet count
• D. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR) are essential laboratory tests to monitor the effectiveness of anticoagulant therapy in clients with atrial fibrillation. These tests help ensure that the client is within the therapeutic range and are commonly used to assess the clotting ability of the blood. Monitoring PT and INR levels allows healthcare providers to adjust anticoagulant dosages as needed to prevent complications such as bleeding or thrombosis. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is more commonly used to monitor heparin therapy, not anticoagulant therapy for atrial fibrillation. Platelet count assesses the number of platelets in the blood and is not a direct indicator of anticoagulant therapy effectiveness. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) is a nonspecific marker of inflammation and is not used to monitor anticoagulant therapy.

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