Nursing Elites

1. A client with known coronary artery disease (CAD) begins to experience chest pain while getting out of bed. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Obtain a prescription for pain medication.
• B. Have the client stop and lie back down in bed.
• C. Report the complaint to the healthcare provider.
• D. Instruct the client to continue getting out of bed and into a chair.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client with CAD experiences chest pain, it indicates myocardial ischemia. The nurse should have the client stop the activity and lie back down in bed to reduce the heart's oxygen demand, decrease myocardial workload, and prevent further ischemia. This action helps in improving blood flow to the heart and can potentially alleviate the chest pain. Option A is incorrect as pain medication should not be the initial action for chest pain in CAD. Option C is incorrect because the nurse should first intervene directly to address the chest pain. Option D is incorrect as continuing the activity can worsen the myocardial ischemia and chest pain.

2. The client is receiving furosemide (Lasix) for heart failure. What potential side effect should the nurse monitor for?

• A. Hypokalemia
• B. Hyperkalemia
• C. Hypernatremia
• D. Hypoglycemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, causes potassium loss, leading to hypokalemia. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial because hypokalemia can result in cardiac arrhythmias and muscle weakness. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because furosemide does not typically cause hyperkalemia, hypernatremia, or hypoglycemia.

3. The client admitted to the hospital with pulmonary edema is preparing for discharge. The client should be reminded of the importance of complying with which measure to prevent a recurrence?

• A. Weigh oneself every morning before breakfast.
• B. Sleep with the head elevated on multiple pillows.
• C. Adjust diuretic dose without healthcare provider guidance.
• D. Take additional digoxin (Lanoxin) as a preventive measure.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Monitoring weight daily, especially in the morning before breakfast, is crucial in detecting fluid retention early and preventing pulmonary edema. Sudden weight gain can indicate fluid accumulation, prompting timely intervention to prevent complications. Choice A is the correct answer because daily weight monitoring is a key component in managing heart failure and preventing pulmonary edema recurrence. Choices B and D are not directly related to preventing fluid retention or pulmonary edema recurrence. Choice C is unsafe as adjusting diuretic doses without healthcare provider guidance can lead to electrolyte imbalances and worsening of the condition.

4. A client with atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin (Coumadin). Which instruction should the nurse give to the client regarding lifestyle changes?

• A. Avoid prolonged sitting or standing.
• B. Use an electric razor to prevent cuts.
• C. Take your medication with a full glass of water.
• D. Eat a diet low in protein.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Using an electric razor is advised to prevent cuts, which is crucial for individuals taking warfarin due to the increased risk of bleeding associated with this medication. Lifestyle changes related to warfarin therapy focus on minimizing the risk of bleeding, and using safety measures such as an electric razor is a practical recommendation to reduce the likelihood of injury. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Avoiding prolonged sitting or standing is more related to preventing blood clots than to the bleeding risk of warfarin. Taking warfarin with a full glass of water is not a specific lifestyle change associated with its use. Eating a diet low in protein is not a typical recommendation for individuals on warfarin therapy.

5. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer a unit of packed red blood cells to a client. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take?

• A. Prime the blood tubing with normal saline.
• B. Verify the client’s identity using two identifiers.
• C. Infuse the blood rapidly over 30 minutes.
• D. Obtain the client’s vital signs every 4 hours during the transfusion.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Verifying the client’s identity using two identifiers is a critical patient safety measure to ensure the correct patient receives the blood transfusion. This process involves checking the patient's identity using at least two unique identifiers, such as name, date of birth, or medical record number, to prevent administration errors. Priming the blood tubing with normal saline is necessary to ensure there are no air bubbles in the tubing, but it is not the immediate action required before administering the blood. Infusing packed red blood cells over 30 minutes is generally too rapid and can lead to adverse reactions; a slower rate is recommended for safe administration. Obtaining vital signs every 4 hours during the transfusion is not frequent enough to monitor the client adequately for potential transfusion reactions or complications; vital signs should be monitored more frequently, especially during the initial phase of the transfusion.

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