Nursing Elites

1. A client is taking levothyroxine for hypothyroidism. Which of the following findings should indicate to the healthcare provider that the client is experiencing levothyroxine toxicity?

• A. Weight loss
• B. Insomnia
• C. Heat intolerance
• D. Dry skin

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Heat intolerance is a hallmark sign of levothyroxine toxicity. It indicates that the client may be receiving an excessive dose of levothyroxine, leading to hyperthyroid symptoms. This can happen when the dosage is too high, causing the body to have an excess of thyroid hormone. Weight loss is a common symptom of hyperthyroidism but alone does not specifically indicate levothyroxine toxicity. Insomnia can be related to hyperthyroidism but is not a specific sign of levothyroxine toxicity. Dry skin is more commonly associated with hypothyroidism rather than levothyroxine toxicity.

2. A hypertensive client who has been taking metoprolol (Lopressor) has been prescribed to decrease the dose of the medication. The client asks the nurse why this must be done over a period of 1 to 2 weeks. In formulating a response, the nurse incorporates the understanding that abrupt withdrawal could affect the client in which way?

• A. Result in hypoglycemia
• B. Give the client insomnia
• C. Precipitate rebound hypertension
• D. Cause enhanced side effects of other prescribed medications

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Abruptly stopping metoprolol can lead to rebound hypertension, causing a sudden increase in blood pressure due to the sudden withdrawal of the medication. Gradually tapering the dose helps the body adjust and reduces the risk of this adverse effect. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Stopping metoprolol suddenly is not known to result in hypoglycemia, insomnia, or enhanced side effects of other medications.

3. A client with atrial fibrillation is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). The nurse should monitor which laboratory test to determine the effectiveness of the therapy?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR)
• B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
• C. Complete blood count (CBC)
• D. Fibrinogen level

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To monitor the effectiveness of warfarin therapy in a client with atrial fibrillation, the nurse should assess the Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR) levels. These tests help determine the clotting ability of the blood and ensure that the client's anticoagulation levels are within the therapeutic range, reducing the risk of bleeding or clotting complications. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) (Choice B) is more commonly used to monitor heparin therapy. Complete blood count (CBC) (Choice C) provides information about the cellular components of blood but does not directly assess the effectiveness of warfarin therapy. Fibrinogen level (Choice D) is not typically used to monitor warfarin therapy; it reflects the level of fibrinogen in the blood, which is involved in the clotting process.

4. A client has a new prescription for digoxin. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include during discharge teaching?

• A. Take the medication with food.
• B. Monitor heart rate daily.
• C. Avoid consuming grapefruit juice.
• D. Increase intake of potassium-rich foods.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Monitor heart rate daily.' When a client is prescribed digoxin, it is essential to monitor heart rate daily because digoxin can cause bradycardia, a condition characterized by a slow heart rate. Monitoring the heart rate regularly allows the client to promptly identify any signs of bradycardia and seek medical attention if needed. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because taking digoxin with food, avoiding grapefruit juice, and increasing potassium-rich foods are not specific instructions related to managing the side effects or monitoring parameters of digoxin therapy.

5. A client with a diagnosis of heart failure is receiving digoxin (Lanoxin) and furosemide (Lasix). The LPN/LVN should closely monitor the client for which potential complication?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hypokalemia
• C. Hypernatremia
• D. Hyponatremia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that promotes the loss of potassium in the urine, potentially leading to hypokalemia. Hypokalemia increases the risk of digoxin toxicity, as digoxin's effects can be potentiated in the presence of low potassium levels. Monitoring for hypokalemia is crucial to prevent adverse effects and maintain the therapeutic effectiveness of digoxin in clients with heart failure. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because furosemide does not typically cause hyperkalemia, hypernatremia, or hyponatremia. Instead, it commonly leads to hypokalemia due to increased potassium excretion.

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