Nursing Elites

1. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is prescribed theophylline. Which adverse effect should the nurse monitor for that indicates toxicity?

• A. Tachycardia
• B. Constipation
• C. Drowsiness
• D. Tremors

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Tachycardia. Tachycardia is a common sign of theophylline toxicity. The nurse should monitor the client for an increased heart rate, as it can indicate a dangerous level of theophylline in the body. Prompt medical attention is required if tachycardia is observed to prevent further complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because constipation, drowsiness, and tremors are not typically associated with theophylline toxicity. While theophylline can cause gastrointestinal upset or central nervous system effects, tachycardia is a more specific and serious indicator of toxicity that requires immediate attention.

2. A client has a new prescription for atenolol. Which of the following instructions should be included in the discharge teaching?

• A. Take the medication at bedtime.
• B. Monitor your heart rate daily.
• C. Increase your intake of potassium-rich foods.
• D. Avoid consuming dairy products.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to monitor their heart rate daily when taking atenolol. Atenolol can lead to bradycardia, a slow heart rate. By monitoring heart rate daily, the client can promptly identify any significant changes and seek medical attention if necessary. This proactive approach enables early detection of potential adverse effects of atenolol, contributing to the client's safety and well-being. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because taking atenolol at bedtime, increasing potassium-rich foods intake, or avoiding dairy products are not specific instructions related to the potential side effects of atenolol.

3. A client with atrial fibrillation is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). The nurse should monitor which laboratory test to determine the effectiveness of the therapy?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR)
• B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
• C. Complete blood count (CBC)
• D. Fibrinogen level

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To monitor the effectiveness of warfarin therapy in a client with atrial fibrillation, the nurse should assess the Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR) levels. These tests help determine the clotting ability of the blood and ensure that the client's anticoagulation levels are within the therapeutic range, reducing the risk of bleeding or clotting complications. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) (Choice B) is more commonly used to monitor heparin therapy. Complete blood count (CBC) (Choice C) provides information about the cellular components of blood but does not directly assess the effectiveness of warfarin therapy. Fibrinogen level (Choice D) is not typically used to monitor warfarin therapy; it reflects the level of fibrinogen in the blood, which is involved in the clotting process.

4. The client is receiving enalapril (Vasotec). The nurse should monitor the client for which potential adverse effect?

• A. Hypertension
• B. Hypotension
• C. Tachycardia
• D. Hyperglycemia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Enalapril is an ACE inhibitor that works by dilating blood vessels and reducing blood pressure. Therefore, monitoring for hypotension is crucial as it can be a potential adverse effect of this medication. Hypertension, tachycardia, and hyperglycemia are not typically associated with enalapril use. Hypertension is the condition enalapril is used to treat, so it would not be an adverse effect. Tachycardia is not a common adverse effect of enalapril. Enalapril does not typically cause hyperglycemia, as it primarily affects blood pressure regulation.

5. A client has a new prescription for prednisone. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. You may experience weight gain.
• B. Increase your intake of vitamin K.
• C. Expect increased urinary output.
• D. You may have dark, tarry stools.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'You may experience weight gain.' Prednisone commonly causes weight gain as a side effect, so it is important for the client to be aware of this potential outcome. Monitoring weight changes can be essential in managing the medication's effects and overall health. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Increasing vitamin K intake is not specifically related to prednisone use. Expecting increased urinary output is not a common side effect of prednisone. Dark, tarry stools are more commonly associated with gastrointestinal bleeding rather than prednisone use.

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