Nursing Elites

1. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is prescribed theophylline. Which adverse effect should the nurse monitor for that indicates toxicity?

• A. Tachycardia
• B. Constipation
• C. Drowsiness
• D. Tremors

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Tachycardia. Tachycardia is a common sign of theophylline toxicity. The nurse should monitor the client for an increased heart rate, as it can indicate a dangerous level of theophylline in the body. Prompt medical attention is required if tachycardia is observed to prevent further complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because constipation, drowsiness, and tremors are not typically associated with theophylline toxicity. While theophylline can cause gastrointestinal upset or central nervous system effects, tachycardia is a more specific and serious indicator of toxicity that requires immediate attention.

2. The client with atrial fibrillation is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory test should be monitored to determine the effectiveness of the therapy?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR)
• B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
• C. Complete blood count (CBC)
• D. Fibrinogen level

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Monitoring Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR) is crucial when a client is on warfarin therapy. These tests assess the clotting ability of the blood and help determine the appropriate dosage of warfarin to prevent complications such as bleeding or clotting events. PT and INR values within the therapeutic range indicate the effectiveness of warfarin in managing atrial fibrillation. Choice B, activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT), is not typically used to monitor warfarin therapy; it is more commonly used to assess the effectiveness of heparin therapy. Choice C, complete blood count (CBC), does not directly assess the anticoagulant effect of warfarin. Choice D, fibrinogen level, is not a primary test for monitoring warfarin therapy; it is more relevant in assessing conditions like disseminated intravascular coagulation.

3. A client with hypertension is prescribed enalapril (Vasotec). The nurse should monitor the client for which adverse effect?

• A. Hypotension
• B. Hypertension
• C. Tachycardia
• D. Hyperglycemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Enalapril, an ACE inhibitor, can lead to hypotension, particularly following the initial dose or dosage escalation. This effect is due to the medication's mechanism of action in dilating blood vessels, which can result in lowered blood pressure. Monitoring for hypotension is crucial to prevent complications such as dizziness, lightheadedness, or fainting in clients taking enalapril. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because enalapril does not typically cause hypertension, tachycardia, or hyperglycemia as adverse effects.

4. A client with a diagnosis of heart failure is being discharged. What information should the nurse emphasize to the client regarding the use of a daily weight log?

• A. Report any weight gain of more than 2 pounds in a day
• B. Weigh yourself after eating breakfast each morning
• C. Use the same scale each day to check your weight
• D. Record your weight daily and report any changes

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Report any weight gain of more than 2 pounds in a day.' Sudden weight gain of more than 2 pounds in a day may indicate fluid retention and worsening heart failure. This information is crucial for early intervention and monitoring of the client's condition. Weighing after eating breakfast (choice B) may not provide consistent results due to varying food and fluid intake. Using the same scale each day (choice C) ensures accuracy and consistency in weight measurements. Recording weight daily (choice D) is more frequent than necessary and may not be practical for all clients. It is essential to focus on significant weight changes to prevent unnecessary alarm or confusion.

5. In monitoring the effectiveness of warfarin therapy for a client with a history of atrial fibrillation, which laboratory value should the nurse monitor?

• A. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
• B. Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR)
• C. Platelet count
• D. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR) are crucial laboratory values to monitor the effectiveness of warfarin therapy in clients with atrial fibrillation. These values help ensure that the client is within the therapeutic range and that the anticoagulant effect of warfarin is appropriate. Monitoring aPTT, platelet count, or ESR is not directly related to assessing the effectiveness of warfarin therapy in these cases.

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