ATI LPN
LPN Pharmacology Assessment A
1. A client has a new prescription for rifampin. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take the medication with food.
- B. Expect red-orange discoloration of body fluids.
- C. Monitor for signs of hyperglycemia.
- D. Avoid consuming dairy products.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to inform the client to expect red-orange discoloration of body fluids when taking rifampin. Rifampin is known to cause this side effect, which is harmless but can be surprising to patients. It is important for the nurse to educate the client about this expected change to prevent unnecessary concern or alarm. Monitoring for hyperglycemia is not directly related to rifampin, and taking the medication with food or avoiding dairy products are not specific instructions for this medication.
2. When preparing to administer a controlled substance, which of the following actions is required?
- A. Check the client's identification bracelet.
- B. Check the client's allergy status.
- C. Have a second nurse witness disposal of the medication.
- D. Document the administration in the client's medical record.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When administering controlled substances, it is crucial to have a second nurse witness the disposal of the medication. This measure ensures proper handling, reduces the risk of diversion, and promotes compliance with regulations regarding controlled substances. Having a second nurse witness the disposal is a safeguard to maintain accountability and prevent any potential misuse or errors during the disposal process. Checking the client's identification bracelet and allergy status are important steps in medication administration but are not specifically required for controlled substances. Documenting the administration in the client's medical record is essential but does not specifically relate to the disposal of controlled substances.
3. A client has a new prescription for metformin. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take the medication with food.
- B. Monitor for signs of hyperglycemia.
- C. Increase your fluid intake.
- D. Expect a sweet taste in your mouth.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client starting metformin is to increase fluid intake. Metformin commonly causes gastrointestinal discomfort, and increasing fluid intake can help alleviate this side effect. Instructing the client to take the medication with food (Choice A) rather than on an empty stomach is recommended to reduce gastrointestinal side effects. Monitoring for signs of hyperglycemia (Choice B) is not directly related to metformin but rather to low blood sugar. Expecting a sweet taste in the mouth (Choice D) is not a common side effect of metformin.
4. A client's serum calcium level is 7.9 mg/dL. The nurse is immediately concerned, knowing that this level could lead to which complication?
- A. Stroke
- B. Cardiac arrest
- C. High blood pressure
- D. Urinary stone formation
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A serum calcium level below normal (hypocalcemia) can lead to cardiac arrhythmias and potentially cardiac arrest. Calcium plays a crucial role in cardiac muscle contractility, and low levels can disrupt normal heart function, potentially leading to fatal arrhythmias and cardiac arrest. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as hypocalcemia is not directly associated with stroke, high blood pressure, or urinary stone formation. The immediate concern with low serum calcium levels is the risk of cardiac complications.
5. The client with atrial fibrillation is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory test should be monitored to determine the effectiveness of the therapy?
- A. Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR)
- B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
- C. Complete blood count (CBC)
- D. Fibrinogen level
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Monitoring Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR) is crucial when a client is on warfarin therapy. These tests assess the clotting ability of the blood and help determine the appropriate dosage of warfarin to prevent complications such as bleeding or clotting events. PT and INR values within the therapeutic range indicate the effectiveness of warfarin in managing atrial fibrillation. Choice B, activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT), is not typically used to monitor warfarin therapy; it is more commonly used to assess the effectiveness of heparin therapy. Choice C, complete blood count (CBC), does not directly assess the anticoagulant effect of warfarin. Choice D, fibrinogen level, is not a primary test for monitoring warfarin therapy; it is more relevant in assessing conditions like disseminated intravascular coagulation.
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