a nurse is assisting the charge nurse with reviewing postpartum nutrition needs with a group of clients who have begun breastfeeding their newborns wh
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

Maternal Newborn ATI Proctored Exam

1. When reviewing postpartum nutrition needs with breastfeeding clients, which statement indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Clients who do not like milk should continue taking calcium supplements to ensure they meet their increased calcium needs while breastfeeding. Calcium is essential for bone health, and during breastfeeding, the mother's calcium requirements are higher. While caffeine in coffee can be consumed in moderation, folic acid does not directly impact milk supply, and the additional 330 calories per day are recommended but not the focus of this question.

2. A client who is breastfeeding and has mastitis is receiving teaching from the nurse. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct response is to completely empty each breast at each feeding or use a pump to prevent milk stasis, which can exacerbate mastitis. By ensuring proper drainage of the affected breast, the client can help alleviate symptoms and promote healing. Choice A is incorrect because limiting feeding time can lead to inadequate drainage, potentially worsening the condition. Choice B is incorrect as it can cause engorgement in the unaffected breast, leading to further complications. Choice D is incorrect as wearing a tight-fitting bra can worsen symptoms by putting pressure on the affected breast, hindering proper drainage and exacerbating mastitis.

3. In a prenatal clinic, a client in the first trimester of pregnancy has a health record that includes this data: G3 T1 P0 A1 L1. How should the nurse interpret this information? (Select all that apply)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The client's health record data is interpreted as follows: G3 (gravida 3 - total number of pregnancies), T1 (term births - number of full-term deliveries), P0 (preterm births - number of preterm deliveries), A1 (abortions/miscarriages - total number of miscarriages or abortions), L1 (living children - total number of living children). Therefore, the client has had three pregnancies, one full-term delivery, no preterm labor, one miscarriage/abortion, and one living child. The correct interpretation is that the client has delivered one newborn at term, experienced no preterm labor, had two prior pregnancies, and has one living child. Therefore, choice D is correct. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not provide a comprehensive interpretation of all aspects of the client's health record data.

4. Which of the following medications should the provider prescribe for a client with gonorrhea?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Ceftriaxone is the preferred medication to treat gonorrhea, a bacterial infection. It is essential to promptly treat gonorrhea to prevent complications such as pelvic inflammatory disease, infertility, and the spread of the infection to others. Fluconazole is used for fungal infections, Metronidazole treats certain bacterial and parasitic infections, and Zidovudine is an antiretroviral medication used in HIV treatment; none of these are appropriate for gonorrhea.

5. A client at 28 weeks of gestation received terbutaline. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Terbutaline is a tocolytic medication that works by relaxing the uterine muscles, leading to weakened uterine contractions. This effect helps to prevent preterm labor. Therefore, the nurse should expect weakened uterine contractions in a client who has received terbutaline at 28 weeks of gestation. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Terbutaline administration would not directly affect the fetal heart rate, enhance fetal lung surfactant production, or cause maternal hypoglycemia.

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