ATI LPN
Maternal Newborn ATI Proctored Exam
1. A healthcare provider is reviewing the health record of a client who is pregnant. The provider indicated the client exhibits probable signs of pregnancy. Which of the following findings should the provider expect? (Select all that apply)
- A. Chadwick's sign
- B. Goodell's sign
- C. Ballottement
- D. All of the above
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Chadwick's sign, Goodell's sign, and ballottement are probable signs of pregnancy. Chadwick's sign refers to a bluish discoloration of the cervix and vaginal mucosa. Goodell's sign is the softening of the cervix due to increased vascularity. Ballottement is the rebound of the fetus when the cervix is tapped during a vaginal examination. Recognizing these signs is essential for healthcare providers in assessing pregnancy. Therefore, all of the above choices are correct as they are all probable signs of pregnancy. Choice D is the correct answer as it includes all the expected findings.
2. A client who is 2 days postpartum reports that their 4-year-old son, who was previously toilet trained, is now wetting himself frequently. Which of the following statements should the nurse provide to the client?
- A. Your son may not have been ready for toilet training and should wear training pants.
- B. Your son is displaying an adverse sibling response.
- C. Your son may benefit from counseling.
- D. Consider enrolling your son in preschool to address the behavior.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The regression in toilet training is a common adverse sibling response to the birth of a new baby. When a new sibling arrives, the older child may revert to behaviors from an earlier stage, such as bedwetting, to gain attention or cope with feelings of insecurity. This behavior is temporary and often resolves with time and reassurance. Recommending counseling or preschool at this point would be premature and not addressing the underlying cause of the behavior.
3. When developing an educational program for adolescents about nutrition during the third trimester of pregnancy, which of the following statements should be included?
- A. Consume three to four servings of dairy each day.
- B. Increase daily caloric intake by 600 to 700 calories.
- C. Limit daily sodium intake to less than 1 gram.
- D. Increase protein intake to 40 to 50 grams per day.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct statement to include when developing an educational program for adolescents about nutrition during the third trimester of pregnancy is to consume three to four servings of dairy each day. Adequate calcium intake is crucial for bone development during pregnancy and helps prevent complications related to inadequate calcium intake. Increasing daily caloric intake by 600 to 700 calories (Choice B) is not necessary during the third trimester; excessive caloric intake can lead to unnecessary weight gain. Limiting daily sodium intake to less than 1 gram (Choice C) is not suitable during pregnancy, as some sodium intake is necessary for maintaining fluid balance. Increasing protein intake to 40 to 50 grams per day (Choice D) is important during pregnancy, but the emphasis in this case should be on calcium from dairy sources for bone development.
4. A client is postpartum and has idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP). Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Decreased platelet count
- B. Increased erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)
- C. Decreased megakaryocytes
- D. Increased WBC
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) is characterized by an autoimmune response that leads to a decreased platelet count. This condition increases the risk of bleeding due to the low platelet levels. Monitoring the platelet count is crucial in managing ITP, as it helps determine the risk of bleeding and guides treatment decisions. Therefore, the correct finding to expect in a client with ITP is a decreased platelet count. Choice B, an increased erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR), is not typically associated with ITP. Choice C, decreased megakaryocytes, may be seen in conditions like aplastic anemia but are not a typical finding in ITP. Choice D, an increased white blood cell count (WBC), is not a characteristic feature of ITP.
5. A client has severe preeclampsia and is receiving magnesium sulfate IV. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify and report as signs of magnesium sulfate toxicity? (Select all that apply)
- A. Respirations less than 12/min
- B. Urinary output less than 25 mL/hr
- C. Decreased level of consciousness
- D. All of the above
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Signs of magnesium sulfate toxicity include respirations less than 12/min, urinary output less than 25 mL/hr, and decreased level of consciousness. These signs indicate potential overdose of magnesium sulfate and require immediate attention to prevent further complications. Reporting these signs promptly is crucial to ensure the client's safety and well-being. Choice D, 'All of the above,' is the correct answer as all the listed findings are indicative of magnesium sulfate toxicity. Choices A, B, and C individually represent different signs of toxicity, making them incorrect on their own. Therefore, the nurse should be vigilant in identifying and reporting all these signs to prevent adverse outcomes.
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