Nursing Elites

1. During newborn gestational age assessment, which finding should be recorded as part of this assessment on the newborn?

• A. Acrocyanosis of hands and feet
• B. Anterior fontanel soft and level
• C. Plantar creases cover 2/3 of sole
• D. Vernix caseosa in inguinal creases

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Plantar creases covering 2/3 of the sole is an important physical characteristic used to assess gestational age in a newborn. This finding is significant because as gestational age advances, the plantar creases cover a larger portion of the sole. It is a valuable clue to the healthcare provider in determining the newborn's maturity level. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not specifically relate to gestational age assessment. Acrocyanosis and vernix caseosa are common findings in newborns but are not directly used for determining gestational age. The softness and level of the anterior fontanel can provide information about intracranial pressure but are not directly related to gestational age assessment.

2. A client who is at 24 weeks of gestation is scheduled for a 1-hour glucose tolerance test. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in her teaching?

• A. You will need to drink the glucose solution 1 hour prior to the test.
• B. Limit your carbohydrate intake for 24 hours prior to the test.
• C. A blood glucose of 130 to 140 mg/dL is considered a positive screening result.
• D. You will need to fast for 8 hours prior to the test.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct statement to include in the teaching for a client scheduled for a 1-hour glucose tolerance test at 24 weeks of gestation is that a blood glucose level of 130 to 140 mg/dL is considered a positive screening result. This range indicates a potential issue with glucose metabolism and would prompt the need for a follow-up 3-hour glucose tolerance test to confirm the diagnosis of gestational diabetes mellitus. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. In a 1-hour glucose tolerance test, the glucose solution is typically consumed within a specific timeframe before the test, not necessarily 1 hour prior. There is usually no specific requirement to limit carbohydrate intake for 24 hours prior to the test. Fasting for 8 hours prior to the test is more common for a fasting glucose test, not a 1-hour glucose tolerance test.

3. A healthcare provider is reviewing the health record of a client who is pregnant. The provider indicated the client exhibits probable signs of pregnancy. Which of the following findings should the provider expect? (Select all that apply)

• A. Chadwick's sign
• B. Goodell's sign
• C. Ballottement
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Chadwick's sign, Goodell's sign, and ballottement are probable signs of pregnancy. Chadwick's sign refers to a bluish discoloration of the cervix and vaginal mucosa. Goodell's sign is the softening of the cervix due to increased vascularity. Ballottement is the rebound of the fetus when the cervix is tapped during a vaginal examination. Recognizing these signs is essential for healthcare providers in assessing pregnancy. Therefore, all of the above choices are correct as they are all probable signs of pregnancy. Choice D is the correct answer as it includes all the expected findings.

4. A nurse is assisting the nurse manager with an educational session about ways to prevent TORCH infections during pregnancy with a group of newly licensed nurses. Which of the following statements by one of the session participants indicates understanding?

• A. Seeking an immunization against rubella early in pregnancy.
• B. Receiving prophylactic treatment for cytomegalovirus if detected during pregnancy.
• C. Clients should avoid crowded places during pregnancy.
• D. Clients should avoid consuming undercooked meat while pregnant.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. To prevent TORCH infections during pregnancy, it is essential for clients to avoid consuming undercooked meat, as it can be a potential source of toxoplasmosis. This infection, along with others in the TORCH group, can pose risks to the fetus, making it crucial for pregnant individuals to follow proper food safety practices. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because seeking an immunization against rubella, receiving prophylactic treatment for cytomegalovirus, and avoiding crowded places are not directly related to preventing TORCH infections through food safety measures.

5. A parent of a newborn is being taught about crib safety. Which statement by the client indicates understanding of the teaching?

• A. I will place my baby on his stomach when he is sleeping.
• B. I should remove extra blankets from my baby's crib.
• C. I should pad the mattress in my baby's crib so that he will be more comfortable when he sleeps.
• D. I should place my baby's crib next to the heater to keep him warm during the winter.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Removing extra blankets from the crib is essential to prevent suffocation and reduce the risk of sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS). Extra blankets can pose a suffocation hazard to the baby during sleep. It is recommended to keep the crib free from loose bedding, pillows, and other soft items to provide a safe sleep environment for the newborn. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Placing the baby on his stomach (Choice A) increases the risk of SIDS. Padding the mattress (Choice C) can also pose a suffocation risk, and placing the crib next to a heater (Choice D) can lead to overheating, which is associated with an increased risk of SIDS.

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