Nursing Elites

1. A client who is at 7 weeks of gestation is experiencing nausea and vomiting in the morning. Which of the following information should the nurse include?

• A. Eat crackers or plain toast before getting out of bed
• B. Awaken during the night to eat a snack
• C. Skip breakfast and eat lunch after nausea has subsided
• D. Eat a large evening meal

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During early pregnancy, nausea and vomiting in the morning are common symptoms. Eating crackers or plain toast before getting out of bed can help manage morning nausea by stabilizing blood sugar levels. This simple and easily digestible snack can alleviate symptoms by providing some sustenance to the stomach before fully waking up and moving around. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Waking up during the night to eat a snack may disrupt sleep patterns, skipping breakfast can worsen symptoms by allowing the stomach to remain empty for longer periods, and eating a large evening meal may exacerbate morning nausea due to increased stomach contents.

2. A client is in labor and reports increasing rectal pressure. She is experiencing contractions 2 to 3 minutes apart, each lasting 80 to 90 seconds, and a vaginal examination reveals that her cervix is dilated to 9 cm. The client is in which of the following phases of labor?

• A. Active
• B. Transition
• C. Latent
• D. Descent

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The client is in the transition phase of labor, characterized by cervical dilatation of 8 to 10 cm and contractions every 2 to 3 minutes, each lasting 45 to 90 seconds. In this phase, the cervix is nearly fully dilated, preparing the client for the pushing stage. The active phase of labor typically involves cervical dilatation from 4 to 7 cm, whereas the latent phase is the early phase of labor when the cervix dilates from 0 to 3 cm. Descent is not a phase of labor but rather refers to the movement of the fetus through the birth canal during the second stage of labor.

3. A client who is pregnant is scheduled for a contraction stress test (CST). Which of the following findings are indications for this procedure? (Select all that apply)

• A. Decreased fetal movement
• B. Intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR)
• C. Postmaturity
• D. All of the Above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A contraction stress test (CST) is performed to assess how the fetus responds to the stress of contractions. Indications for this test include decreased fetal movement, intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR), and postmaturity. These conditions may warrant the need for a CST to evaluate fetal well-being and determine appropriate management. Therefore, all of the above options are correct indications for a contraction stress test. Options A, B, and C are incorrect because they are all valid reasons for performing a CST in a pregnant client.

4. A client is scheduled for a cesarean birth based on fetal lung maturity. Which finding indicates that the fetal lungs are mature?

• A. Absence of Phosphatidylglycerol (PG)
• B. Biophysical profile score of 8
• C. Lecithin/sphingomyelin (L/S) ratio of 2:1
• D. Reactive nonstress test

Correct answer: C

Rationale: An L/S ratio of 2:1 indicates fetal lung maturity, as it signifies the presence of surfactant in the amniotic fluid, which helps with lung expansion and prevents collapse at the end of expiration. The absence of PG indicates immaturity of the fetal lungs, as PG appears in the amniotic fluid during the later stages of lung maturation. Biophysical profile scores and nonstress tests are assessments of fetal well-being and do not directly indicate fetal lung maturity. Therefore, choice C is the correct answer.

5. A client who is at 42 weeks gestation and in labor asks the nurse what to expect because the baby is postmature. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?

• A. Your baby will have excess baby fat.
• B. Your baby will have flat areola without breast buds.
• C. Your baby's heels will easily move to his ears.
• D. Your baby's skin will have a leathery appearance.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Your baby's skin will have a leathery appearance.' Postmature infants, born after 42 weeks of gestation, may have a leathery appearance of the skin due to prolonged exposure to amniotic fluid. This occurs as the protective vernix caseosa is shed, and the skin loses its protective covering, leading to a wrinkled and dry appearance. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Excess baby fat is not a typical characteristic of postmature infants. Flat areola without breast buds and the ability of the baby's heels to easily move to his ears are not associated with postmaturity.

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