Nursing Elites

1. A client who is at 7 weeks of gestation is experiencing nausea and vomiting in the morning. Which of the following information should the nurse include?

• A. Eat crackers or plain toast before getting out of bed
• B. Awaken during the night to eat a snack
• C. Skip breakfast and eat lunch after nausea has subsided
• D. Eat a large evening meal

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During early pregnancy, nausea and vomiting in the morning are common symptoms. Eating crackers or plain toast before getting out of bed can help manage morning nausea by stabilizing blood sugar levels. This simple and easily digestible snack can alleviate symptoms by providing some sustenance to the stomach before fully waking up and moving around. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Waking up during the night to eat a snack may disrupt sleep patterns, skipping breakfast can worsen symptoms by allowing the stomach to remain empty for longer periods, and eating a large evening meal may exacerbate morning nausea due to increased stomach contents.

2. A healthcare provider is discussing the differences between true labor and false labor with a group of expectant parents. Which of the following characteristics should the healthcare provider include when discussing true labor?

• A. Contractions become stronger with walking.
• B. Discomfort can be relieved with a back massage.
• C. Contractions become irregular with a change in activity.
• D. Discomfort is felt above the umbilicus.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During true labor, contractions typically become stronger and more regular with activity, such as walking. This is a key characteristic that helps differentiate true labor from false labor. In false labor, contractions often remain irregular and do not intensify with changes in activity. Choice B is incorrect because discomfort in true labor is not typically relieved with a back massage. Choice C is incorrect as contractions in true labor become stronger and more regular with activity rather than irregular. Choice D is incorrect because discomfort in true labor is usually felt in the lower abdomen and pelvis, not above the umbilicus.

3. A client who is at 39 weeks of gestation and is in active labor has fetal heart tones located above the umbilicus at midline. The fetus is likely in which of the following positions?

• A. Cephalic
• B. Transverse
• C. Posterior
• D. Frank breech

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Fetal heart tones above the umbilicus at midline are indicative of a breech presentation, specifically a frank breech position. In a frank breech position, the baby's buttocks are presenting first, which aligns with the fetal heart tones being above the umbilicus. This position indicates that the baby is not in the normal head-down position for birth, which can impact the delivery process and may require specific interventions. Cephalic presentation (Choice A) is the normal head-down position for birth, transverse lie (Choice B) is when the baby is positioned horizontally in the uterus, and posterior position (Choice C) refers to the baby's back being positioned towards the mother's back.

4. A newborn was transferred to the nursery 30 min after delivery. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Confirm the newborn's identification.
• B. Verify the newborn's identification.
• C. Administer vitamin K to the newborn.
• D. Determine obstetrical risk factors.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a newborn is transferred to the nursery, the first action the nurse should take is to verify the newborn's identification. This step is crucial for ensuring the correct care is provided to the right newborn, promoting patient safety and preventing errors. Administering vitamin K (Choice C) is important but should not be the first action. Determining obstetrical risk factors (Choice D) is not the priority when the newborn is transferred to the nursery. Confirming (Choice A) and verifying (Choice B) have similar meanings, but 'verify' is a more appropriate term in this context.

5. A client at 32 weeks of gestation with placenta previa is actively bleeding. Which medication should the provider likely prescribe?

• A. Betamethasone
• B. Indomethacin
• C. Nifedipine
• D. Methylergonovine

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In cases of placenta previa with active bleeding at 32 weeks of gestation, Betamethasone is prescribed to accelerate fetal lung maturity in anticipation of potential preterm delivery. This medication helps in reducing the risk of respiratory distress syndrome in the newborn, which is crucial in managing such high-risk pregnancies. Indomethacin is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug not indicated in this scenario and may be contraindicated due to its effects on platelet function and potential risk of bleeding. Nifedipine is a calcium channel blocker used for conditions like preterm labor or hypertension, not specifically for placenta previa with active bleeding. Methylergonovine is a uterotonic drug used to prevent or control postpartum hemorrhage, not indicated for placenta previa with active bleeding.

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