a nurse is teaching a client about the use of spironolactone which of the following should be included in the teaching
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2020 B

1. A client is being educated about the use of spironolactone. Which of the following should be included in the teaching?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Avoid potassium-rich foods. Spironolactone can lead to hyperkalemia, a condition characterized by high levels of potassium in the blood. To prevent this complication, clients taking spironolactone should avoid potassium-rich foods. Choice B is incorrect because spironolactone can be taken with or without food. Choice C is not directly related to spironolactone use, as toxicity monitoring is not a specific concern with this medication. Choice D is incorrect because discontinuing the medication solely based on elevated potassium levels may not be necessary; instead, dosage adjustments or potassium restriction are often more appropriate.

2. A healthcare professional is assessing a client for signs of depression. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional look for?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When assessing a client for signs of depression, healthcare professionals should look for changes in sleep patterns and weight loss. These are common symptoms associated with depression. Increased energy (choice A) is not typically a sign of depression, as individuals with depression often experience fatigue and a lack of energy. Therefore, choices A, B, and C are incorrect, making choice D the correct answer.

3. A client receiving IV moderate (conscious) sedation with midazolam has a respiratory rate of 9/min and is not responding to commands. Which of the following is an appropriate action by the nurse?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the client is showing signs of respiratory depression and central nervous system depression due to midazolam sedation. Administering flumazenil is the correct action as it is the antidote for midazolam, a benzodiazepine, and can reverse the sedative effects to restore respiratory function. Placing the client in a prone position (choice A) may worsen respiratory compromise. Implementing positive pressure ventilation (choice B) is not the first-line intervention for sedation-related respiratory depression. Performing nasopharyngeal suctioning (choice C) is not indicated as there are no signs of airway obstruction requiring suctioning.

4. A nurse is preparing to administer IV furosemide. Which of the following should the nurse monitor for during the infusion?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that works by increasing the excretion of water and electrolytes, particularly potassium. Therefore, the nurse should monitor for hypokalemia, as low potassium levels can lead to various complications such as cardiac dysrhythmias. Choice A, increased urinary output, is an expected effect of furosemide due to its diuretic action but is not a side effect needing monitoring. Ototoxicity (Choice B) is a potential adverse effect of other medications like aminoglycoside antibiotics, not furosemide. Hypoglycemia (Choice D) is not a common side effect associated with furosemide administration.

5. A nurse is preparing to administer a dose of enoxaparin. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to give enoxaparin in the abdomen. Enoxaparin is usually administered subcutaneously in the abdomen to avoid muscle irritation. Choice A is incorrect because enoxaparin should not be administered intramuscularly. Choice B is incorrect as monitoring APTT levels is not directly related to administering enoxaparin. Choice D is incorrect as enoxaparin should be administered slowly to prevent bruising or bleeding at the injection site.

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