ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment Form B
1. A nurse is assessing a client who reports chest pain. Which of the following findings should cause the nurse to suspect a myocardial infarction?
- A. Pain improves with rest
- B. Pain radiates to the left arm.
- C. Pain worsens with deep breathing.
- D. Pain is relieved by antacids.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Radiating pain, especially to the left arm, is a classic sign of myocardial infarction. Pain that radiates to the left arm indicates cardiac involvement, making it a significant finding. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because chest pain that improves with rest, worsens with deep breathing, or is relieved by antacids is less likely to be associated with a myocardial infarction.
2. A nurse is observing bonding between the client and her newborn. Which of the following actions by the client requires the nurse to intervene?
- A. Holding the newborn in an en face position
- B. Asking the father to change the newborn's diaper
- C. Requesting the nurse to take the newborn to the nursery so she can rest
- D. Viewing the newborn’s actions as uncooperative
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because viewing the newborn’s actions as uncooperative indicates a negative interaction with the newborn and suggests impaired bonding, which requires intervention. Choices A, B, and C are not indicative of impaired bonding. Holding the newborn in an en face position is a positive way to bond with the baby. Asking the father to change the diaper shows involvement of both parents in caring for the newborn, which is beneficial for bonding. Requesting the nurse to take the newborn to the nursery so the mother can rest is a normal request and does not necessarily indicate impaired bonding.
3. A client with a closed head injury has their eyes open when pressure is applied to the nail beds, and they exhibit adduction of the arms with flexion of the elbows and wrists. The client also moans with stimulation. What is the client's Glasgow Coma Score?
- A. 4
- B. 7 (comatose)
- C. 9
- D. 10
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The client's Glasgow Coma Score is 7. This is calculated by assigning 2 points for eye-opening to pain, 2 points for incomprehensible sounds, and 3 points for flexion posturing. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Choice A (4) would be the score if the client displayed decerebrate posturing instead of flexion posturing. Choice C (9) would be the score if the client exhibited eye-opening to speech, confused speech, and decorticate posturing. Choice D (10) would be the score if the client showed eye-opening spontaneously, oriented speech, and obeyed commands, which is not the case here.
4. A patient is receiving chemotherapy and reports nausea. Which of the following dietary recommendations should the nurse make?
- A. Eat foods served hot
- B. Drink liquids between meals
- C. Eat dry cereal
- D. Choose foods with a strong aroma
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct recommendation for a patient receiving chemotherapy and experiencing nausea is to suggest eating dry, bland foods like cereal. These types of foods are often better tolerated as they are less likely to trigger nausea compared to aromatic or hot foods. Drinking liquids between meals, as suggested in option B, can be helpful to prevent dehydration but may not specifically address the nausea. Eating foods with a strong aroma, as in option D, may actually worsen nausea in patients undergoing chemotherapy.
5. A nurse is caring for a client with celiac disease. Which food should be removed from the meal tray?
- A. Cornbread
- B. Mashed potatoes
- C. Lentils
- D. Tortillas
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, Tortillas. Clients with celiac disease should avoid gluten, which is often found in tortillas. Cornbread, mashed potatoes, and lentils are gluten-free options, making them safe for individuals with celiac disease. Therefore, the other choices (A, B, and C) do not need to be removed from the meal tray.
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