Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is assessing a client who reports chest pain. Which of the following findings should cause the nurse to suspect a myocardial infarction?

• A. Pain improves with rest
• B. Pain radiates to the left arm.
• C. Pain worsens with deep breathing.
• D. Pain is relieved by antacids.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Radiating pain, especially to the left arm, is a classic sign of myocardial infarction. Pain that radiates to the left arm indicates cardiac involvement, making it a significant finding. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because chest pain that improves with rest, worsens with deep breathing, or is relieved by antacids is less likely to be associated with a myocardial infarction.

2. A client with heart failure is receiving discharge teaching. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I will weigh myself once a week.
• B. I will take my diuretic medication in the evening.
• C. I will limit my fluid intake to 3 liters per day.
• D. I will call my doctor if I notice swelling in my feet.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Swelling in the feet can indicate worsening heart failure due to fluid retention, and clients should report this to their healthcare provider immediately. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because weighing once a week may not provide timely information on fluid retention, timing of diuretic medication is usually advised in the morning to prevent nocturia, and limiting fluid intake to 3 liters per day may not be appropriate for all clients with heart failure.

3. A healthcare professional is caring for a client receiving potassium-sparing diuretics. Which of the following should the healthcare professional monitor?

• A. Hypokalemia
• B. Hyperkalemia
• C. Hypoglycemia
• D. Hyponatremia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: When a client is receiving potassium-sparing diuretics, the healthcare professional should monitor for hyperkalemia. Potassium-sparing diuretics can cause potassium retention, leading to elevated potassium levels in the blood. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial to prevent hyperkalemia-related complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because potassium-sparing diuretics typically do not cause hypokalemia, hypoglycemia, or hyponatremia.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who has peptic ulcer disease (PUD) and is prescribed sucralfate. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. Take sucralfate with an antacid.
• B. Take sucralfate 1 hour before meals.
• C. Take sucralfate with food.
• D. Take sucralfate at bedtime only.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Sucralfate should be taken on an empty stomach, 1 hour before meals. This timing allows sucralfate to form a protective barrier over the ulcer, enhancing healing. Choice A is incorrect because sucralfate should not be taken with an antacid. Choice C is incorrect because sucralfate should not be taken with food. Choice D is incorrect because sucralfate should not be taken at bedtime only; it is best absorbed on an empty stomach.

5. A client with lactose intolerance needs to increase calcium intake. Which food should the nurse recommend?

• A. Spinach
• B. Peanut butter
• C. Ground beef
• D. Carrots

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Spinach is a suitable choice to recommend for increasing calcium intake to a client with lactose intolerance. Spinach is a good non-dairy source of calcium. Peanut butter, ground beef, and carrots are not significant sources of calcium. Peanut butter is high in protein and fats, ground beef is a source of protein and iron, and carrots are rich in vitamin A and fiber, but none of these choices provide a substantial amount of calcium.

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