ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment Form A
1. A nurse is caring for a client who is 38 weeks pregnant and has a history of herpes simplex virus 2. Which question is most appropriate for the nurse to ask?
- A. Have your membranes ruptured?
- B. How far apart are your contractions?
- C. Do you have any active lesions?
- D. Are you positive for beta strep?
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The most appropriate question for the nurse to ask is whether the client has any active herpes lesions. This is crucial because the presence of active lesions can necessitate a cesarean section to prevent transmission of the virus to the newborn. Asking about membrane rupture (choice A) is important but not directly related to the client's herpes simplex virus 2 status. Inquiring about the frequency of contractions (choice B) is relevant for assessing labor progression but does not address the immediate concern of herpes transmission. Asking about being positive for beta strep (choice D) is important for determining the need for prophylactic antibiotics during labor, but it is not directly related to the client's herpes simplex virus 2 status.
2. A client gave birth 4 hours ago and is experiencing excessive vaginal bleeding. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take first?
- A. Elevate the client's legs to a 30° angle
- B. Insert an indwelling urinary catheter
- C. Massage the client's fundus
- D. Initiate an infusion of oxytocin
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to massage the client's fundus first. Uterine atony is a common cause of postpartum hemorrhage, and massaging the fundus can help stimulate uterine contractions, which will assist in reducing bleeding. Elevating the client's legs to a 30° angle (Choice A) is not the priority in this situation as fundal massage takes precedence. Inserting an indwelling urinary catheter (Choice B) may be necessary but should not take precedence over managing the postpartum hemorrhage. Initiating an infusion of oxytocin (Choice D) is a valid intervention to address uterine atony, but massaging the fundus should come first to promote immediate contraction and control bleeding.
3. A client who is at 32 weeks gestation and has a history of cardiac disease is being cared for by a nurse. Which of the following positions should the nurse place the client in to best promote optimal cardiac output?
- A. The chest
- B. Standing
- C. Supine
- D. Left lateral
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is the left lateral position. Placing the client in the left lateral position promotes optimal cardiac output during pregnancy by reducing pressure on the inferior vena cava, improving blood flow to the heart and fetus. Choice A, 'The chest,' is incorrect as it does not describe a position that benefits cardiac output. Choice B, 'Standing,' is incorrect as it does not alleviate pressure on the vena cava. Choice C, 'Supine,' is contraindicated in pregnancy, especially in clients with cardiac disease, as it can compress the vena cava and decrease cardiac output.
4. A client with a history of renal failure is being cared for by a nurse. Which of the following should the nurse monitor?
- A. Fluid intake
- B. Electrolyte levels
- C. Blood pressure
- D. Both B and C
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Clients with renal failure are at risk for electrolyte imbalances and hypertension. Monitoring electrolyte levels is crucial because renal failure can lead to imbalances in sodium, potassium, and other electrolytes. Blood pressure monitoring is essential as hypertension is a common complication of renal failure. Therefore, both electrolyte levels and blood pressure should be closely monitored to detect and manage any abnormalities. Fluid intake, while important, is not specific to renal failure monitoring and is not the priority in this case.
5. A client who has been prescribed oral contraception receives education from a nurse. Which of the following client statements indicates a need for further education?
- A. If I miss one pill, I'll take it as soon as possible
- B. If I miss two pills, I'll double up for two days
- C. If I miss three pills, I'll double up each day until back on schedule
- D. I'll use an alternative form of contraception if I miss more than two pills
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct course of action after missing oral contraceptive pills depends on how many pills are missed. If three pills are missed, the client should not 'double up' but rather follow the manufacturer's instructions and use an alternative form of contraception until the next cycle. Taking too many pills at once increases the risk of side effects without restoring contraceptive protection. Choices A, B, and D demonstrate understanding of the correct actions to take after missing a pill or two, emphasizing the importance of not doubling up but following specific guidelines to maintain effectiveness and safety.
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