Nursing Elites

1. In the nursing process, the evaluation phase is used to determine:

• A. Value of the nursing intervention
• B. Accuracy of problem identification
• C. Quality of the plan of care
• D. Degree of outcome achievement

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The evaluation phase of the nursing process is used to determine the degree of outcome achievement. It assesses whether the goals and outcomes set during the planning phase were met. Choice A is incorrect because it focuses on the worth of the intervention rather than the achievement of outcomes. Choice B is incorrect as it pertains to the assessment phase where problems are identified. Choice C is incorrect as it refers to the planning phase where the care plan is developed, not evaluated.

2. A client in labor has an epidural for pain control. Which of the following clinical manifestations is an adverse effect of epidural anesthesia?

• A. Polyuria
• B. Hypertension
• C. Pruritus
• D. Dry mouth

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Pruritus is a common adverse effect of epidural anesthesia, often due to the opioids administered with the epidural. It presents as itching on the skin and can cause significant discomfort to the client. Polyuria (excessive urination) and dry mouth are not typical adverse effects of epidural anesthesia. Hypertension is not commonly associated with epidural anesthesia; in fact, hypotension is a more frequent complication due to sympathetic blockade. Therefore, the correct answer is pruritus (choice C), as it is a known adverse effect of epidural anesthesia.

3. A nurse is caring for a client receiving corticosteroids. Which of the following should the nurse monitor?

• A. Blood glucose levels
• B. Blood pressure
• C. Serum potassium levels
• D. Both A and B

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a client is receiving corticosteroids, the nurse should monitor both blood glucose levels and blood pressure. Corticosteroids can elevate blood glucose levels, leading to hyperglycemia, and may cause hypertension. Monitoring these parameters is essential to detect and address any potential adverse effects promptly. While monitoring serum potassium levels is important in some situations, it is not a primary concern when caring for a client receiving corticosteroids. Therefore, choices A and B are the most appropriate options for monitoring in this scenario, making option D the correct answer.

4. A client is being taught about the use of metformin. Which of the following should be included?

• A. It is taken with food
• B. It can cause hyperglycemia
• C. It should be taken once daily
• D. It is an injectable medication

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Metformin should be taken with food to minimize gastrointestinal side effects. Choice A is the correct answer as taking metformin with meals can help reduce the likelihood of experiencing gastrointestinal side effects like diarrhea and nausea, which are common side effects of metformin. Choice B is incorrect because metformin actually helps lower blood sugar levels and does not cause hyperglycemia. Choice C is incorrect as metformin is usually taken twice or even three times a day, not just once daily. Choice D is incorrect because metformin is an oral medication, not an injectable one.

5. A client is taking levothyroxine. Which of the following findings should indicate that the medication is effective?

• A. Weight loss
• B. Decreased blood pressure
• C. Absence of seizures
• D. Decreased inflammation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Weight loss. Levothyroxine is used to treat hypothyroidism, which is characterized by symptoms such as weight gain. Therefore, weight loss in a client taking levothyroxine indicates that the medication is effective in managing hypothyroidism. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because levothyroxine primarily affects thyroid function and metabolism, not blood pressure, seizures, or inflammation.

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