Nursing Elites

1. When teaching a client about the use of risperidone, which of the following should be included?

• A. It is an SSRI
• B. Monitor for metabolic syndrome
• C. It has no side effects
• D. It can be taken with alcohol

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Monitor for metabolic syndrome.' Risperidone is not an SSRI but an atypical antipsychotic. Choice A is incorrect. Choice C is also incorrect as risperidone, like any medication, can have side effects. Choice D is wrong because alcohol consumption should generally be avoided while taking risperidone. Educating clients about monitoring for metabolic syndrome, weight gain, and other potential side effects is crucial in managing their health effectively while on this medication.

2. A client in labor has an epidural for pain control. Which of the following clinical manifestations is an adverse effect of epidural anesthesia?

• A. Polyuria
• B. Hypertension
• C. Pruritus
• D. Dry mouth

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Pruritus is a common adverse effect of epidural anesthesia, often due to the opioids administered with the epidural. It presents as itching on the skin and can cause significant discomfort to the client. Polyuria (excessive urination) and dry mouth are not typical adverse effects of epidural anesthesia. Hypertension is not commonly associated with epidural anesthesia; in fact, hypotension is a more frequent complication due to sympathetic blockade. Therefore, the correct answer is pruritus (choice C), as it is a known adverse effect of epidural anesthesia.

3. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who has a heart rate of 40/min. The client is diaphoretic and has chest pain. Which of the following medications should the healthcare provider plan to administer?

• A. Lidocaine
• B. Adenosine
• C. Atropine
• D. Verapamil

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The client presents with bradycardia, diaphoresis, and chest pain, indicating reduced cardiac output. Atropine is the appropriate choice as it increases heart rate by blocking the parasympathetic nervous system. Lidocaine is used for ventricular arrhythmias, Adenosine for supraventricular tachycardia, and Verapamil for controlling heart rate in atrial fibrillation or atrial flutter. These medications are not suitable for the client's current presentation.

4. Before an amniocentesis, what action by the client will need to be completed?

• A. Increase fluid intake
• B. Empty the bladder
• C. Avoid eating for 12 hours
• D. Take a sedative

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Before an amniocentesis, the client should empty their bladder. This is necessary to reduce the risk of bladder puncture during the procedure. A full bladder can be in the path of the needle, increasing the risk of injury. Increasing fluid intake (choice A) is not necessary before an amniocentesis. Avoiding eating for 12 hours (choice C) is not a standard preparation for an amniocentesis. Taking a sedative (choice D) is not routinely required for this procedure.

5. A client diagnosed with pneumonia is receiving oxygen therapy at 4 L/min via nasal cannula. Which of the following interventions is most important?

• A. Encourage fluid intake.
• B. Monitor oxygen saturation levels.
• C. Change the oxygen tubing daily.
• D. Assist with frequent position changes.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Monitoring oxygen saturation levels is the most important intervention in this scenario. It ensures that the client is receiving adequate oxygenation, which is crucial for a client with pneumonia. By monitoring saturation levels, the nurse can promptly identify any oxygenation issues and adjust the oxygen delivery if necessary. Encouraging fluid intake, changing oxygen tubing daily, and assisting with frequent position changes are also important aspects of care for a client with pneumonia, but they are not as critical as monitoring oxygen saturation levels in ensuring immediate respiratory support.

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