a nurse is planning care for a client who has a latex allergy and is scheduled for surgery which of the following actions should the nurse take
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment B Quizlet

1. A nurse is planning care for a client who has a latex allergy and is scheduled for surgery. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action the nurse should take is to wrap monitoring cords with stockinette. This measure ensures that the latex in the cords does not come into contact with the client’s skin, reducing the risk of an allergic reaction. Applying tape to the client’s skin before surgery (Choice A) may expose the client to latex if the tape contains latex. Ensuring the surgical suite is well-ventilated (Choice B) is important for overall safety but does not specifically address the client's latex allergy. Scheduling the surgery at the end of the day (Choice D) is not directly related to preventing latex exposure and allergic reactions.

2. A healthcare professional is assessing a client for signs of hypoglycemia. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional look for?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Fatigue. Fatigue, along with symptoms like shakiness and irritability, are common signs of hypoglycemia. Increased thirst (Choice A) is more indicative of hyperglycemia. Weight gain (Choice C) is not typically associated with hypoglycemia. Elevated blood pressure (Choice D) is not a common sign of hypoglycemia.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who has chronic kidney disease. Which of the following diets should the nurse anticipate the provider to prescribe?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Clients with chronic kidney disease often have difficulty regulating potassium levels in their blood. A potassium-restricted diet helps prevent hyperkalemia, a common complication in these clients. High sodium diet (Choice A) is typically avoided in kidney disease to prevent fluid retention and high blood pressure. High phosphorus diet (Choice C) is usually restricted in kidney disease as elevated phosphorus levels can lead to bone and heart problems. While protein is important for overall health, a high protein diet (Choice D) can put extra strain on the kidneys and is usually limited in chronic kidney disease.

4. A client with a closed head injury has their eyes open when pressure is applied to the nail beds, and they exhibit adduction of the arms with flexion of the elbows and wrists. The client also moans with stimulation. What is the client's Glasgow Coma Score?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The client's Glasgow Coma Score is 7. This is calculated by assigning 2 points for eye-opening to pain, 2 points for incomprehensible sounds, and 3 points for flexion posturing. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Choice A (4) would be the score if the client displayed decerebrate posturing instead of flexion posturing. Choice C (9) would be the score if the client exhibited eye-opening to speech, confused speech, and decorticate posturing. Choice D (10) would be the score if the client showed eye-opening spontaneously, oriented speech, and obeyed commands, which is not the case here.

5. A client with chronic kidney disease is about to start hemodialysis. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to reduce potassium intake. Clients with chronic kidney disease should limit potassium intake to prevent hyperkalemia, as the kidneys may struggle to remove excess potassium. Increasing protein intake between dialysis sessions (Choice A) is not recommended as it can increase urea production, adding to the workload of the kidneys. Avoiding iron supplements (Choice C) is not necessary unless iron levels are high. Expecting weight gain after each dialysis session (Choice D) is incorrect as patients typically experience weight loss due to fluid removal during dialysis.

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