ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2020 A with NGN
1. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer a dose of naloxone. Which of the following should the healthcare professional assess?
- A. Heart rate
- B. Respiratory rate
- C. Blood pressure
- D. Temperature
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Correct. Naloxone is used to reverse opioid overdose, which can cause respiratory depression. Assessing the respiratory rate before administering naloxone is crucial to monitor the patient's breathing. Choices A, C, and D are important assessments in general patient care but are not specifically crucial before administering naloxone for opioid overdose.
2. A nurse is caring for a client who has an indwelling urinary catheter. What should the nurse identify as a catheter occlusion?
- A. Pain during urination
- B. Bladder distention
- C. Cloudy urine
- D. Blood in the catheter tube
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Bladder distention. Bladder distention indicates that the bladder is full and there is impaired elimination, which could be caused by catheter occlusion. Pain during urination (choice A) is not typically associated with catheter occlusion but may indicate a urinary tract infection. Cloudy urine (choice C) can be a sign of infection but is not specific to catheter occlusion. Blood in the catheter tube (choice D) may indicate trauma during catheter insertion but is not a typical finding in catheter occlusion.
3. A charge nurse is providing teaching to a newly licensed nurse on how to clean surfaces contaminated with blood. Which of the following agents should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. Hydrogen peroxide
- B. Chlorhexidine
- C. Isopropyl alcohol
- D. Chlorine bleach
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Chlorine bleach is the recommended agent for cleaning blood spills due to its effectiveness in killing bloodborne pathogens like HIV and hepatitis B. Hydrogen peroxide, Chlorhexidine, and Isopropyl alcohol are not as effective as chlorine bleach in disinfecting surfaces contaminated with blood and eliminating bloodborne pathogens, making them incorrect choices.
4. Before an amniocentesis, what action by the client will need to be completed?
- A. Increase fluid intake
- B. Empty the bladder
- C. Avoid eating for 12 hours
- D. Take a sedative
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Before an amniocentesis, the client should empty their bladder. This is necessary to reduce the risk of bladder puncture during the procedure. A full bladder can be in the path of the needle, increasing the risk of injury. Increasing fluid intake (choice A) is not necessary before an amniocentesis. Avoiding eating for 12 hours (choice C) is not a standard preparation for an amniocentesis. Taking a sedative (choice D) is not routinely required for this procedure.
5. A healthcare professional is caring for a client receiving potassium-sparing diuretics. Which of the following should the healthcare professional monitor?
- A. Hypokalemia
- B. Hyperkalemia
- C. Hypoglycemia
- D. Hyponatremia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: When a client is receiving potassium-sparing diuretics, the healthcare professional should monitor for hyperkalemia. Potassium-sparing diuretics can cause potassium retention, leading to elevated potassium levels in the blood. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial to prevent hyperkalemia-related complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because potassium-sparing diuretics typically do not cause hypokalemia, hypoglycemia, or hyponatremia.
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