a nurse is teaching a client about the use of fluoxetine which of the following should be included
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PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2020 B

1. A nurse is teaching a client about the use of fluoxetine. Which of the following should be included?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: When educating a client about fluoxetine, it is essential to mention that it can take several weeks for the therapeutic effects to be noticed. This is because fluoxetine is an SSRI that requires time to build up in the body and start producing its intended effects. Choice B is incorrect as fluoxetine is not an antipsychotic medication but an SSRI. Choice C is inaccurate because fluoxetine can be taken at any time of the day, and there is no specific requirement to take it at night. Choice D is incorrect as all medications, including fluoxetine, have potential side effects that should be discussed with the client.

2. A nurse is assessing a client with chronic kidney disease. Which of the following should the nurse monitor for?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hyperkalemia. Clients with chronic kidney disease are at risk for hyperkalemia due to impaired potassium excretion. In chronic kidney disease, the kidneys are unable to effectively excrete potassium, leading to its accumulation in the blood. Hypercalcemia (Choice B) is not typically associated with chronic kidney disease. Hypoglycemia (Choice C) refers to low blood sugar levels and is not directly related to chronic kidney disease. Hyponatremia (Choice D) is a condition characterized by low sodium levels and is not a typical concern in chronic kidney disease.

3. A healthcare professional is reviewing the results of an ABG performed on a client with chronic emphysema. Which of the following results suggests the need for further treatment?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A PaCO2 level of 55 mm Hg indicates hypercapnia, which is common in clients with emphysema but may require further treatment if it leads to respiratory acidosis or distress. Elevated PaCO2 levels can indicate inadequate ventilation and impaired gas exchange, potentially leading to respiratory acidosis. The other results fall within normal ranges or compensated values for a client with chronic emphysema and do not necessarily indicate the need for immediate intervention.

4. A client in labor has an epidural for pain control. Which of the following clinical manifestations is an adverse effect of epidural anesthesia?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Pruritus is a common adverse effect of epidural anesthesia, often due to the opioids administered with the epidural. It presents as itching on the skin and can cause significant discomfort to the client. Polyuria (excessive urination) and dry mouth are not typical adverse effects of epidural anesthesia. Hypertension is not commonly associated with epidural anesthesia; in fact, hypotension is a more frequent complication due to sympathetic blockade. Therefore, the correct answer is pruritus (choice C), as it is a known adverse effect of epidural anesthesia.

5. A client just received their first dose of lisinopril. Which of the following is an appropriate nursing intervention?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to provide standby assistance when the client gets out of bed. Lisinopril can cause hypotension, especially after the first dose, which can lead to dizziness and falls. Standby assistance helps prevent potential injury. Placing the client on cardiac monitoring (choice A) or monitoring oxygen saturation (choice B) are not typically necessary after the first dose of lisinopril unless specific symptoms are present. Encouraging foods high in potassium (choice D) is not directly related to the immediate concern of postural hypotension associated with lisinopril.

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