a nurse is caring for a client who has dehydration the client has a peripheral iv and has a prescription for an infusion of 09 sodium chloride 1000 ml
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ATI LPN

PN ATI Capstone Adult Medical-Surgical 1 Quiz

1. A nurse is caring for a client who has dehydration. The client has a peripheral IV and has a prescription for an infusion of 0.9% sodium chloride 1,000 mL with 40 mEq potassium chloride to infuse over 1 hr. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The priority action is to verify the prescription with the provider. Verifying the prescription ensures patient safety by preventing fluid volume overload and dysrhythmias, which can result from infusing potassium too rapidly. Teaching the client about IV extravasation, evaluating IV patency, and consulting with the pharmacist are important but should come after verifying the prescription to ensure the ordered treatment is appropriate and safe for the client's condition.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who has been receiving oxytocin IV for labor augmentation. The client's contractions are occurring every 2 minutes and lasting 90 seconds. What action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to discontinue the oxytocin infusion. The client is experiencing uterine hyperstimulation, as evidenced by contractions occurring every 2 minutes and lasting 90 seconds. Discontinuing the oxytocin is crucial to prevent fetal distress and uterine rupture. Increasing the IV fluid rate would not address the uterine hyperstimulation caused by oxytocin. Applying an internal fetal monitor is not the priority at this moment; first, the oxytocin infusion needs to be stopped to manage the uterine hyperstimulation effectively.

3. A nurse is teaching a client who is pregnant about the amniocentesis procedure. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct statement to include in the teaching about amniocentesis is that the client should report if they experience any contractions after the procedure. This is crucial because contractions could indicate preterm labor or other complications following the amniocentesis. Choices A and B are incorrect as a full bladder is not required for the procedure, and magnesium sulfate is not typically given before an amniocentesis. Choice C is incorrect as the procedure usually takes about 20-30 minutes to complete.

4. A healthcare provider is discussing recommendations for daily nutrient intake during pregnancy with a client who is at 10 weeks of gestation. For which of the following nutrients should the healthcare provider instruct the client to increase intake during pregnancy?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Calcium. During pregnancy, it is essential to increase calcium intake as it is crucial for fetal bone development and to prevent maternal bone loss. Adequate calcium supports the increased needs of both the mother and the developing baby. Vitamin E, Vitamin D, and fiber are also important nutrients, but the specific nutrient that needs to be increased during pregnancy for bone development is calcium. Vitamin E is an antioxidant that plays a role in protecting cells from damage, Vitamin D helps with calcium absorption and bone health, and fiber is important for digestive health but does not specifically need to be increased during pregnancy for bone development.

5. A client with hepatic encephalopathy is being cared for by a nurse. Which food selection indicates the client understands dietary teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: For clients with hepatic encephalopathy, foods high in protein like cottage cheese and tuna should be avoided. Plant-based protein sources like beans are recommended due to their lower ammonia production during digestion. Therefore, the correct choice is B. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they include high-protein or high-sodium foods that can worsen the condition of hepatic encephalopathy.

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