Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a client who has dehydration. The client has a peripheral IV and has a prescription for an infusion of 0.9% sodium chloride 1,000 mL with 40 mEq potassium chloride to infuse over 1 hr. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

• A. Teach the client to report findings of IV extravasation
• B. Evaluate the patency of the IV
• C. Consult with the pharmacist about the prescription
• D. Verify the prescription with the provider

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The priority action is to verify the prescription with the provider. Verifying the prescription ensures patient safety by preventing fluid volume overload and dysrhythmias, which can result from infusing potassium too rapidly. Teaching the client about IV extravasation, evaluating IV patency, and consulting with the pharmacist are important but should come after verifying the prescription to ensure the ordered treatment is appropriate and safe for the client's condition.

2. A school nurse is developing a teaching plan about testicular cancer for a group of adolescents. What information should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. Expect pain in the testicles during self-examination.
• B. The testicles should be uniform in size and shape when examined.
• C. Expect testicles to be uniform in consistency when performing a testicular self-examination.
• D. The testicles will shrink if cancer is present.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because during a testicular self-examination, it is crucial to note a uniform consistency of the testicles. Any lumps, changes in size, or inconsistencies should be reported to a healthcare provider promptly. Choice A is incorrect because pain is not typically expected during a testicular self-examination. Choice B is incorrect as uniform size and shape are not as relevant as uniform consistency. Choice D is incorrect; testicular cancer usually causes enlargement rather than shrinking of the testicles.

3. A nurse is caring for a client prescribed prednisone. Which of the following should the nurse monitor?

• A. Blood glucose levels
• B. Serum potassium levels
• C. Liver function tests
• D. Heart rate

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Prednisone is known to cause hyperglycemia by increasing blood glucose levels. Monitoring blood glucose levels is crucial to detect and manage any potential hyperglycemic effects of prednisone. While prednisone can also affect serum potassium levels and liver function, the priority monitoring parameter in this case is blood glucose levels. Monitoring heart rate is not directly associated with prednisone administration, making it a less relevant parameter to monitor in this scenario.

4. A nurse is assessing a client who has a blood glucose level of 250 mg/dL. Which of the following clinical manifestations is associated with this finding?

• A. Confusion
• B. Thirst
• C. Diaphoresis
• D. Shakiness

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Corrected Detailed Rationale: A blood glucose level of 250 mg/dL indicates hyperglycemia. Thirst (polydipsia) is a common clinical manifestation associated with hyperglycemia. The body tries to compensate for the high blood sugar by increasing fluid intake. Confusion (choice A) is more commonly associated with hypoglycemia, not hyperglycemia. Diaphoresis (choice C) and shakiness (choice D) are typical manifestations of hypoglycemia, not hyperglycemia. Therefore, the correct answer is increased thirst (polydipsia) in response to the elevated blood glucose level.

5. A nurse is planning a staff education session regarding biological weapons of mass destruction. What should the nurse include in the session?

• A. Rabies, cholera, meningitis
• B. Smallpox, anthrax, botulism
• C. Ebola, hepatitis B, tetanus
• D. Tuberculosis, influenza, measles

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Smallpox, anthrax, botulism. These are known biological weapons that can be used in mass casualty situations. Rabies, cholera, and meningitis (Choice A) are not typically used as biological weapons. Ebola, hepatitis B, and tetanus (Choice C) are serious diseases but are not commonly associated with biological warfare. Tuberculosis, influenza, and measles (Choice D) are infectious diseases but are not typically used as biological weapons of mass destruction.

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