a nurse is preparing to administer lactated ringers lr 1000 ml iv to infuse over 8 hr the drop factor of the manual iv tubing is 10 gttml the nurse sh
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ATI LPN

PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment A

1. A nurse is preparing to administer lactated Ringer's (LR) 1,000 mL IV to infuse over 8 hr. The drop factor of the manual IV tubing is 10 gtt/mL. The nurse should set the manual IV infusion to deliver how many gtt/min? (Round the answer to the nearest whole number).

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the IV infusion rate in gtt/min: 1000 mL / 480 min × 10 gtt/mL = 20.83 ≈ 21 gtt/min. Therefore, the correct answer is A. Choice B (20 gtt/min) is incorrect because the calculation results in 20.83 gtt/min, rounded to 21. Choices C (25 gtt/min) and D (18 gtt/min) are incorrect as they are not the closest whole number approximation to the calculated value.

2. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a urinary tract infection and new prescriptions for phenazopyridine and ciprofloxacin. Which of the following statements by the client indicates the need for further teaching?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Phenazopyridine can turn the urine orange, which is a normal side effect and not a cause for alarm. The client's statement about notifying the provider immediately if their urine turns orange indicates a need for further teaching because it shows a misunderstanding of the medication's side effects. Choices A, B, and C demonstrate a good understanding of the prescribed medications and their effects, indicating the client has grasped the teaching provided on those aspects.

3. A client with peptic ulcer disease reports a headache. Which of the following medications should the nurse plan to administer?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Acetaminophen is the preferred analgesic for clients with peptic ulcer disease because it does not cause gastrointestinal irritation, unlike Ibuprofen, Naproxen, and Aspirin, which can exacerbate peptic ulcer symptoms and lead to gastrointestinal complications.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for tamoxifen. The nurse should recognize that tamoxifen has which of the following therapeutic effects?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Tamoxifen is an antiestrogen medication used primarily in the treatment and prevention of breast cancer. It works by blocking the effects of estrogen in the breast tissue, thereby acting as an antiestrogenic agent. This makes choice A the correct answer. Choice B, antimicrobial, is incorrect as tamoxifen does not possess antimicrobial properties and is not used to treat infections. Choice C, androgenic, is incorrect as tamoxifen has antiestrogenic effects, not androgenic effects. Choice D, anti-inflammatory, is incorrect as tamoxifen's main therapeutic action is antiestrogenic rather than anti-inflammatory.

5. A client with a severe urinary tract infection (UTI) asks why both ciprofloxacin and phenazopyridine are needed. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Ciprofloxacin is an antibiotic that treats the infection, while phenazopyridine is a urinary analgesic that relieves pain. Choice A is incorrect because phenazopyridine does not decrease adverse effects of ciprofloxacin; it primarily addresses pain. Choice B is incorrect because combining phenazopyridine with ciprofloxacin does not shorten the course of therapy; they serve different purposes. Choice C is incorrect because the use of phenazopyridine does not allow for a lower dosage of ciprofloxacin; they have independent roles in UTI management.

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