Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is preparing to administer lactated Ringer's (LR) 1,000 mL IV to infuse over 8 hr. The drop factor of the manual IV tubing is 10 gtt/mL. The nurse should set the manual IV infusion to deliver how many gtt/min? (Round the answer to the nearest whole number).

• A. 21 gtt/min
• B. 20 gtt/min
• C. 25 gtt/min
• D. 18 gtt/min

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the IV infusion rate in gtt/min: 1000 mL / 480 min × 10 gtt/mL = 20.83 ≈ 21 gtt/min. Therefore, the correct answer is A. Choice B (20 gtt/min) is incorrect because the calculation results in 20.83 gtt/min, rounded to 21. Choices C (25 gtt/min) and D (18 gtt/min) are incorrect as they are not the closest whole number approximation to the calculated value.

2. A nurse is caring for an older adult client who has a new prescription for amitriptyline to treat depression. Which of the following diagnostic tests should the nurse plan to perform prior to starting the client on this medication?

• A. Hearing examination
• B. Glucose tolerance test
• C. Electrocardiogram
• D. Pulmonary function tests

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Electrocardiogram. Amitriptyline can cause cardiac arrhythmias, so an electrocardiogram is necessary before starting treatment. A hearing examination (choice A) is not required before initiating amitriptyline. A glucose tolerance test (choice B) is not indicated for starting this medication. Pulmonary function tests (choice D) are not necessary before initiating amitriptyline for depression.

3. A client is receiving IV gentamicin three times daily. Which of the following findings indicates that the client is experiencing an adverse effect of this medication?

• A. Hypoglycemia
• B. Proteinuria
• C. Nasal congestion
• D. Visual disturbances

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Proteinuria. Proteinuria can indicate nephrotoxicity, a known adverse effect of gentamicin. Gentamicin is known to cause kidney damage, leading to proteinuria. Hypoglycemia is not typically associated with gentamicin use but may be related to insulin administration or other medical conditions. Nasal congestion is not a common adverse effect of gentamicin. Visual disturbances are also not typically reported with gentamicin use.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for ergotamine. The nurse should recognize that ergotamine is administered to treat which of the following conditions?

• A. Raynaud's phenomenon
• B. Migraine headaches
• C. Ulcerative colitis
• D. Anemia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Ergotamine is used to treat migraine headaches by constricting blood vessels in the brain. Therefore, the correct answer is B. Choice A, Raynaud's phenomenon, is incorrect as ergotamine is not indicated for this condition. Choice C, Ulcerative colitis, is incorrect as ergotamine is not used to treat this gastrointestinal disorder. Choice D, Anemia, is incorrect as ergotamine is not prescribed for anemia.

5. A nurse is caring for an older adult client who has a prescription for zolpidem at bedtime to promote sleep. The nurse should plan to monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects?

• A. Ecchymosis
• B. Decreased urine output
• C. Increased blood pressure
• D. Dizziness

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Dizziness. Zolpidem is known to cause dizziness, especially in older adults. This adverse effect can increase the risk of falls and injuries in the elderly population. Monitoring for dizziness is crucial to ensure patient safety. Choice A, Ecchymosis, is the development of bruising and is not a common adverse effect of zolpidem. Choices B and C, Decreased urine output and Increased blood pressure, are not typically associated with zolpidem use. Therefore, they are incorrect choices in this scenario.

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