ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Fundamentals Quiz
1. A nurse is monitoring a client who has been receiving intermittent enteral feedings. What should the nurse identify as an intolerance to the feeding?
- A. Increased appetite
- B. Nausea
- C. Weight gain
- D. Regular bowel movements
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Nausea is a common sign of intolerance to enteral feedings. When a client experiences nausea, it can indicate difficulty in tolerating the feeding formula. This intolerance may also manifest as vomiting and dumping syndrome. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because increased appetite, weight gain, and regular bowel movements are not typical signs of intolerance to enteral feedings.
2. A client with ulcerative colitis has a new prescription for sulfasalazine. What adverse effect should the client monitor for according to the nurse?
- A. Jaundice
- B. Constipation
- C. Oral candidiasis
- D. Sedation
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Jaundice. Sulfasalazine can lead to liver toxicity, making it essential to monitor for jaundice, a sign of liver dysfunction. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because constipation, oral candidiasis, and sedation are not commonly associated with sulfasalazine use.
3. A community health nurse is reviewing primary prevention for West Nile virus with a group of patients in a rural health clinic. What instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Eliminate areas of standing water.
- B. Wear a mask when outdoors.
- C. Ensure food is cooked thoroughly.
- D. Avoid contact with sick individuals.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Eliminate areas of standing water.' Standing water provides breeding grounds for mosquitoes, which spread West Nile virus. By eliminating standing water, individuals can reduce the risk of mosquito breeding and the transmission of the virus. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Wearing a mask when outdoors, ensuring food is cooked thoroughly, and avoiding contact with sick individuals are not directly related to primary prevention strategies for West Nile virus.
4. A client who is 2 hours postpartum reports heavy bleeding and passing large clots. What is the nurse's priority action?
- A. Perform fundal massage
- B. Administer oxytocin IV
- C. Check vital signs
- D. Encourage the client to void
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Perform fundal massage. Fundal massage promotes uterine contractions, which is the initial action to reduce postpartum hemorrhage caused by uterine atony. Checking vital signs (choice C) is important but not the priority when active bleeding is present. Administering oxytocin IV (choice B) may be needed but is not the priority action. Encouraging the client to void (choice D) does not address the underlying issue of postpartum hemorrhage and should not be the priority.
5. A postpartum client's fundus is firm, 3 cm above the umbilicus, and displaced to the right. Which of the following interventions should the nurse take?
- A. Massage the fundus
- B. Administer oxytocin
- C. Assist the client to void then reassess the fundus
- D. Notify the healthcare provider
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct intervention for a postpartum client with a firm, displaced fundus is to assist the client to void then reassess the fundus. Displacement of the uterus to the right is often a sign of bladder distention, which can prevent the uterus from contracting properly and increase the risk of postpartum hemorrhage. By helping the client to void, the nurse can alleviate the bladder distention, allowing the uterus to contract effectively. Massaging the fundus (Choice A) may not address the underlying issue of bladder distention. Administering oxytocin (Choice B) is not indicated without assessing and addressing the cause of the displacement. Notifying the healthcare provider (Choice D) is premature before implementing initial nursing interventions to address the potential cause of the displaced fundus.
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