a nurse is teaching a client about the use of a metered dose inhaler mdi which instruction should the nurse include in the teaching
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PN ATI Capstone Fundamentals Quiz

1. A nurse is teaching a client about the use of a metered-dose inhaler (MDI). Which instruction should the nurse include in the teaching?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Inhaling the medication deeply for 3-5 seconds and holding the breath for 10 seconds after inhalation ensures effective medication delivery to the lungs. Choice A is the correct instruction for the use of a metered-dose inhaler (MDI). Choice B, exhaling forcefully before inhaling, is incorrect as it can lead to decreased medication delivery. Choice C, shaking the MDI vigorously before use, is also incorrect as excessive shaking can cause the medication to clump. Choice D, holding the mouthpiece 2.5-5 cm (1-2 in) in front of the mouth, is not recommended as it may lead to improper inhalation technique.

2. A nurse is planning care for a client who has a new diagnosis of dysphagia. Which of the following foods should be included when initiating feeding?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Oatmeal is a soft, easy-to-swallow food, making it appropriate for clients with dysphagia, as it minimizes the risk of aspiration compared to liquids or hard foods. Beef broth (Choice A) is a liquid and may pose a risk of aspiration. Apple juice (Choice C) is a liquid and can also be a choking hazard for individuals with dysphagia. Toast (Choice D) is a hard food that may be difficult for a client with dysphagia to swallow safely.

3. A client is being educated about the use of spironolactone. Which of the following should be included in the teaching?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Avoid potassium-rich foods. Spironolactone can lead to hyperkalemia, a condition characterized by high levels of potassium in the blood. To prevent this complication, clients taking spironolactone should avoid potassium-rich foods. Choice B is incorrect because spironolactone can be taken with or without food. Choice C is not directly related to spironolactone use, as toxicity monitoring is not a specific concern with this medication. Choice D is incorrect because discontinuing the medication solely based on elevated potassium levels may not be necessary; instead, dosage adjustments or potassium restriction are often more appropriate.

4. A nurse is reviewing a laboratory report for a client who is at 33 weeks of gestation and has preeclampsia. Which of the following laboratory results should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A BUN of 35 mg/dL indicates potential kidney impairment, which is a concern in preeclampsia due to compromised renal function. This finding warrants further evaluation by the provider. High BUN levels may suggest reduced kidney function, a common complication associated with preeclampsia. Hgb, Bilirubin, and Hct levels are within normal ranges and are not directly indicative of kidney impairment or preeclampsia in this scenario. Therefore, the nurse should report the elevated BUN level to the healthcare provider for prompt management and monitoring.

5. A client presents with symptoms suggestive of rheumatoid arthritis. Which of the following laboratory tests should be ordered to confirm this diagnosis?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Rheumatoid factor is a specific marker for rheumatoid arthritis. It is often elevated in clients with this autoimmune condition, helping to confirm the diagnosis. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) and antinuclear antibody tests can be supportive but are not specific for rheumatoid arthritis. Serum calcium levels are not typically used to confirm this diagnosis.

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