Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider is caring for a client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following should the healthcare provider monitor?

• A. Serum glucose levels
• B. Serum potassium levels
• C. Blood pressure
• D. Both A and B

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When caring for a client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN), monitoring serum glucose levels is essential due to the impact TPN can have on glucose metabolism. Additionally, electrolytes like potassium should be monitored as they can be affected by TPN administration. Blood pressure monitoring is not directly related to TPN administration, making choices A and B the correct options to monitor in this scenario.

2. A nurse is caring for four clients. Which client should the nurse assess first?

• A. A client scheduled to receive chemotherapy for the first time
• B. A client post-appendectomy with diminished bowel sounds
• C. A client with hypothyroidism who is stuporous
• D. A client with burns requiring a sterile dressing change

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. The client with hypothyroidism who is stuporous should be assessed first as this may indicate a critical condition, possibly related to severe hypothyroidism. Stupor is a state of near-unconsciousness or insensibility, suggesting a decline in neurological function that requires immediate evaluation. Choices A, B, and D do not present with immediate life-threatening conditions that require urgent assessment. While chemotherapy, post-appendectomy complications, and burn care are important, they do not pose the same level of immediate risk as a stuporous client.

3. A nurse is assessing a client with a history of heart failure. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor?

• A. Increased energy
• B. Peripheral edema
• C. Elevated heart rate
• D. Improved lung sounds

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Peripheral edema. In heart failure, the heart's inability to pump effectively can lead to fluid backup, causing swelling in the extremities, known as peripheral edema. Monitoring for peripheral edema is crucial as it is a common sign of worsening heart failure. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because increased energy, elevated heart rate, and improved lung sounds are not typical findings in heart failure. Increased energy is not usually associated with heart failure, an elevated heart rate may occur as a compensatory mechanism but is not a direct sign of heart failure, and improved lung sounds are not expected in heart failure which often presents with crackles or wheezes due to pulmonary congestion.

4. A nurse is caring for a client prescribed gabapentin. Which of the following should the nurse monitor?

• A. Liver function tests
• B. Renal function
• C. Blood glucose levels
• D. Cardiac rhythm

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Renal function. Gabapentin is primarily eliminated by the kidneys, so monitoring renal function is essential to ensure the drug is being cleared effectively from the body. Monitoring liver function tests (choice A) is not a priority for gabapentin as it is not primarily metabolized by the liver. Blood glucose levels (choice C) are not directly impacted by gabapentin. Cardiac rhythm (choice D) monitoring is not typically necessary for clients on gabapentin unless they have pre-existing cardiac conditions that may be exacerbated by the medication.

5. A nurse is providing dietary teaching to a client who is at risk for cardiovascular disease. Which of the following foods should the nurse recommend?

• A. Fried chicken
• B. Oatmeal
• C. Bacon
• D. Whole milk

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Oatmeal is high in fiber, which helps lower cholesterol levels, making it a heart-healthy food option for clients at risk for cardiovascular disease. Fried chicken, bacon, and whole milk are high in saturated fats and cholesterol, which can increase the risk of heart disease and should be limited in the diet of individuals at risk for cardiovascular issues.

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