ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Maternal Newborn
1. A postpartum client's fundus is firm, 3 cm above the umbilicus, and displaced to the right. Which of the following interventions should the nurse take?
- A. Massage the fundus
- B. Administer oxytocin
- C. Assist the client to void then reassess the fundus
- D. Notify the healthcare provider
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct intervention for a postpartum client with a firm, displaced fundus is to assist the client to void then reassess the fundus. Displacement of the uterus to the right is often a sign of bladder distention, which can prevent the uterus from contracting properly and increase the risk of postpartum hemorrhage. By helping the client to void, the nurse can alleviate the bladder distention, allowing the uterus to contract effectively. Massaging the fundus (Choice A) may not address the underlying issue of bladder distention. Administering oxytocin (Choice B) is not indicated without assessing and addressing the cause of the displacement. Notifying the healthcare provider (Choice D) is premature before implementing initial nursing interventions to address the potential cause of the displaced fundus.
2. A nurse is assessing a client who has a blood glucose level of 250 mg/dL. Which of the following clinical manifestations is associated with this finding?
- A. Confusion
- B. Thirst
- C. Diaphoresis
- D. Shakiness
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Corrected Detailed Rationale: A blood glucose level of 250 mg/dL indicates hyperglycemia. Thirst (polydipsia) is a common clinical manifestation associated with hyperglycemia. The body tries to compensate for the high blood sugar by increasing fluid intake. Confusion (choice A) is more commonly associated with hypoglycemia, not hyperglycemia. Diaphoresis (choice C) and shakiness (choice D) are typical manifestations of hypoglycemia, not hyperglycemia. Therefore, the correct answer is increased thirst (polydipsia) in response to the elevated blood glucose level.
3. A client with chronic kidney disease is about to start hemodialysis. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Increase protein intake between dialysis sessions
- B. Reduce potassium intake
- C. Avoid iron supplements
- D. Expect weight gain after each dialysis session
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to reduce potassium intake. Clients with chronic kidney disease should limit potassium intake to prevent hyperkalemia, as the kidneys may struggle to remove excess potassium. Increasing protein intake between dialysis sessions (Choice A) is not recommended as it can increase urea production, adding to the workload of the kidneys. Avoiding iron supplements (Choice C) is not necessary unless iron levels are high. Expecting weight gain after each dialysis session (Choice D) is incorrect as patients typically experience weight loss due to fluid removal during dialysis.
4. A nurse is assessing a client with osteoporosis who is experiencing severe pain. The client's respiratory rate is 14/min. Which of the following medications should the nurse administer first?
- A. Promethazine
- B. Hydromorphone
- C. Ketorolac
- D. Amitriptyline
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B, Hydromorphone. Hydromorphone is an opioid analgesic commonly used to manage severe pain effectively. In this case, the client's stable respiratory rate of 14/min indicates that it is safe to administer an opioid for pain relief. Promethazine (choice A) is an antiemetic and antihistamine, not the first choice for severe pain management. Ketorolac (choice C) is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that may not be potent enough for severe pain relief associated with osteoporosis. Amitriptyline (choice D) is a tricyclic antidepressant, not typically used as a first-line medication for severe pain.
5. A nurse is teaching a client about the use of clopidogrel. Which of the following should be included?
- A. It is an anticoagulant
- B. Monitor for signs of bleeding
- C. It can be stopped abruptly
- D. Avoid foods rich in vitamin K
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Monitor for signs of bleeding.' Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet medication, not an anticoagulant. Clients taking clopidogrel should be monitored for signs of bleeding due to its antiplatelet effects. Choice A is incorrect because clopidogrel is not an anticoagulant. Choice C is incorrect as clopidogrel should not be stopped abruptly but as directed by a healthcare provider. Choice D is irrelevant since foods rich in vitamin K are more of a concern with anticoagulant medications like warfarin, not antiplatelet medications like clopidogrel.
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