Nursing Elites

1. A postpartum client's fundus is firm, 3 cm above the umbilicus, and displaced to the right. Which of the following interventions should the nurse take?

• A. Massage the fundus
• B. Administer oxytocin
• C. Assist the client to void then reassess the fundus
• D. Notify the healthcare provider

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct intervention for a postpartum client with a firm, displaced fundus is to assist the client to void then reassess the fundus. Displacement of the uterus to the right is often a sign of bladder distention, which can prevent the uterus from contracting properly and increase the risk of postpartum hemorrhage. By helping the client to void, the nurse can alleviate the bladder distention, allowing the uterus to contract effectively. Massaging the fundus (Choice A) may not address the underlying issue of bladder distention. Administering oxytocin (Choice B) is not indicated without assessing and addressing the cause of the displacement. Notifying the healthcare provider (Choice D) is premature before implementing initial nursing interventions to address the potential cause of the displaced fundus.

2. A nurse in an outpatient facility is assessing a client who is prescribed furosemide 40 mg daily, but the client reports she has been taking extra doses to promote weight loss. Which of the following indicates she is dehydrated?

• A. Urine specific gravity of 1.035
• B. Oliguria, increased urine concentration, and an increase in urine specific gravity greater than 1.030
• C. Polyuria
• D. Hypotension

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Oliguria (reduced urine output), increased urine concentration, and a urine specific gravity greater than 1.030 are indicative of dehydration, particularly in clients using diuretics excessively. Choice A is incorrect because a urine specific gravity of 1.035 is high, indicating concentrated urine but not specifically dehydration. Choice C, polyuria, refers to increased urine output and is not consistent with dehydration. Choice D, hypotension, is a sign of fluid volume deficit but is not specific to dehydration as described in the scenario.

3. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who has a long arm cast. Which of the following findings indicates a moderate complication when assessing for acute compartment syndrome?

• A. Shortness of breath
• B. Petechiae
• C. Change in mental status
• D. Edema

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Edema is a common sign of acute compartment syndrome, which is a medical emergency caused by increased pressure within a muscle compartment, requiring immediate intervention. Shortness of breath (Choice A) is more indicative of a respiratory issue rather than acute compartment syndrome. Petechiae (Choice B) are pinpoint, round spots that appear on the skin due to bleeding under the skin and are not typically associated with acute compartment syndrome. Change in mental status (Choice C) is more suggestive of neurological issues rather than acute compartment syndrome.

4. A nurse on the medical-surgical unit is receiving reports on four clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse assess first?

• A. A client who is receiving warfarin and has an INR of 3.3
• B. A client who has acute kidney injury, creatinine 4 mg/dL, and BUN 52 mg/dL
• C. A client who had an NG tube inserted 6 hours ago and has abdominal distention
• D. A client who is 4 hours postoperative following a thyroidectomy and reports fullness in the throat

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The client who is 4 hours postoperative following a thyroidectomy and reports fullness in the throat should be assessed first. This client may be experiencing airway obstruction due to hematoma or swelling, making it a priority. Options A, B, and C have concerning findings as well, but airway compromise takes precedence over other issues.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for vancomycin 1 g IV every 12 hours. The client is scheduled to have the morning dose at 0700. The nurse should schedule the trough level to be drawn at which of the following times?

• A. 2100
• B. 900
• C. 1300
• D. 1800

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The trough level of vancomycin should be drawn just before the next dose is administered, typically about 30 minutes before the scheduled dose. Since the morning dose is at 0700, the trough level should be drawn at 1800. This timing ensures an accurate measurement of the lowest concentration of the drug in the client's system before the next dose is given. Choice A (2100) is too close to the next dose, choice B (900) is too early, and choice C (1300) is also too far from the next dose.

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