ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2020 A with NGN
1. A nurse is caring for an older adult client with delirium. Which intervention will most effectively reduce the client's risk for falls?
- A. Using a night-light
- B. Demonstrating how to use the call light
- C. Placing the bedside table in close proximity
- D. Hourly rounding by the nurse
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Hourly rounding by the nurse is the most effective intervention to reduce the risk of falls in older adult clients with delirium. This intervention ensures that the nurse regularly checks on the client, assesses their needs, and assists them with any activities, thereby minimizing the chances of falls. Using a night-light (choice A) may help improve visibility but does not provide continuous assistance and monitoring. Demonstrating how to use the call light (choice B) is important but may not prevent falls directly. Placing the bedside table in close proximity (choice C) is helpful for convenience but does not address the continuous monitoring and assistance needed to prevent falls in this case.
2. A healthcare provider is preparing to administer a dose of clindamycin. Which of the following should the provider assess first?
- A. Allergy history
- B. Vital signs
- C. Renal function
- D. Liver function
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When preparing to administer clindamycin, assessing the patient's allergy history is crucial as clindamycin can cause severe allergic reactions. This assessment helps identify any potential risks related to allergies and enables the healthcare provider to take necessary precautions. Vital signs, renal function, and liver function are also important assessments before administering medications, but in this case, checking for any history of allergies takes priority due to the risk of severe allergic reactions associated with clindamycin.
3. A client has been prescribed amlodipine for hypertension. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse instruct the client to report?
- A. Dry cough
- B. Dizziness
- C. Rash
- D. Headache
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Dizziness.' Amlodipine, a calcium channel blocker used for hypertension, can cause dizziness due to its blood pressure-lowering effects. It is crucial for clients to report dizziness to their healthcare provider as it may indicate hypotension. Dry cough (choice A) is more commonly associated with ACE inhibitors, rash (choice C) may be seen in allergic reactions, and headache (choice D) is a less common side effect of amlodipine.
4. A client has been prescribed trazodone. Which of the following should be monitored?
- A. Blood glucose levels
- B. Liver function
- C. Mood changes
- D. Heart rate
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Correct. Trazodone is an antidepressant that can impact mood and behavior. Monitoring for changes in mood or behavior is crucial to assess the effectiveness and potential side effects of the medication. Monitoring blood glucose levels is not typically associated with trazodone use. While trazodone can affect liver function in some cases, monitoring liver function is not the primary concern compared to assessing mood changes. Trazodone can cause changes in heart rate in some patients, but the priority monitoring in this case should be related to its effects on mood.
5. A charge nurse is providing teaching to a newly licensed nurse on how to clean surfaces contaminated with blood. Which of the following agents should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. Hydrogen peroxide
- B. Chlorhexidine
- C. Isopropyl alcohol
- D. Chlorine bleach
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Chlorine bleach is the recommended agent for cleaning blood spills due to its effectiveness in killing bloodborne pathogens like HIV and hepatitis B. Hydrogen peroxide, Chlorhexidine, and Isopropyl alcohol are not as effective as chlorine bleach in disinfecting surfaces contaminated with blood and eliminating bloodborne pathogens, making them incorrect choices.
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