Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider is reviewing a client’s care plan. Which of the following goals is most appropriate?

• A. Client will inject insulin twice daily
• B. Client will keep appointments with the healthcare provider for 6 months
• C. Client's A1c will be 5% within one year
• D. Client's blood glucose will stay between 60-120 mg/dL

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. A1c is a key indicator of long-term diabetes management, reflecting average blood sugar levels over the past 2-3 months. Achieving a target A1c of 5% indicates good control of blood sugar levels and reduces the risk of diabetes-related complications. Choices A, B, and D are not as appropriate as they focus on short-term tasks or individual blood glucose readings, rather than long-term management and outcomes.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who has been experiencing repeated tonic-clonic seizures over the course of 30 min. After maintaining the client’s airway and turning the client on their side, which of the following medications should the nurse administer?

• A. Diazepam IV
• B. Lorazepam PO
• C. Diltiazem IV
• D. Clonazepam PO

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In the scenario of a client experiencing prolonged seizures, such as status epilepticus, the priority is to administer a benzodiazepine to stop the seizure activity. Diazepam is the medication of choice for this situation due to its rapid onset of action and effectiveness in terminating seizures quickly. Lorazepam, although another benzodiazepine, is typically given through routes other than oral (PO) administration in emergency situations. Diltiazem is a calcium channel blocker used for cardiac conditions, not for seizure management. Clonazepam is a benzodiazepine, but it is usually not the first choice in the acute management of status epilepticus.

3. A nurse is caring for a patient who has been in a motor vehicle crash and has a minor traumatic brain injury (TBI). What finding should the nurse recognize as a complication and report to the provider?

• A. Hypertension
• B. Vomiting
• C. Drainage from the ear
• D. Unequal pupils

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Unequal pupils are a sign of increased intracranial pressure or worsening brain injury, indicating a serious complication that requires immediate medical attention. Hypertension, vomiting, and drainage from the ear are not typically associated with minor traumatic brain injury complications; therefore, they are not the priority findings to report to the provider.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving oxytocin to augment labor. The client has an intrauterine pressure catheter and an internal fetal scalp electrode for monitoring. Which of the following is an indication that the nurse should discontinue the infusion?

• A. Contraction frequency every 3 minutes
• B. Contraction duration of 100 seconds
• C. Fetal heart rate with moderate variability
• D. Fetal heart rate of 118/min

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A contraction duration of 100 seconds indicates potential uterine hyperstimulation, which can lead to fetal distress and decreased uterine perfusion. Prolonged contractions may reduce oxygen supply to the fetus, putting it at risk. Discontinuing the oxytocin infusion is crucial to prevent adverse effects on both the mother and the fetus. The other options do not raise immediate concerns that would necessitate discontinuing the oxytocin infusion. Contraction frequency every 3 minutes is within a normal range. Fetal heart rate with moderate variability and a rate of 118/min are both reassuring signs of fetal well-being.

5. A nurse in an outpatient facility is assessing a client who is prescribed furosemide 40 mg daily, but the client reports she has been taking extra doses to promote weight loss. Which of the following indicates she is dehydrated?

• A. Urine specific gravity of 1.035
• B. Oliguria, increased urine concentration, and an increase in urine specific gravity greater than 1.030
• C. Polyuria
• D. Hypotension

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Oliguria (reduced urine output), increased urine concentration, and a urine specific gravity greater than 1.030 are indicative of dehydration, particularly in clients using diuretics excessively. Choice A is incorrect because a urine specific gravity of 1.035 is high, indicating concentrated urine but not specifically dehydration. Choice C, polyuria, refers to increased urine output and is not consistent with dehydration. Choice D, hypotension, is a sign of fluid volume deficit but is not specific to dehydration as described in the scenario.

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