Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a client who is in labor and has a diagnosis of group B streptococcus ß-hemolytic infection. Which of the following medications should the nurse plan to administer?

• A. Ampicillin
• B. Azithromycin
• C. Ceftriaxone
• D. Acyclovir

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Ampicillin is the correct choice for treating group B streptococcus infections in pregnant women during labor to prevent neonatal infection. Group B streptococcus is commonly treated with penicillin or ampicillin; therefore, choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Azithromycin is not the first-line treatment for group B streptococcus. Ceftriaxone is not the preferred antibiotic for this infection during labor. Acyclovir is an antiviral medication used for herpes simplex virus infections, not bacterial infections like group B streptococcus.

2. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who is receiving heparin therapy for deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which of the following laboratory values should the provider monitor to evaluate the therapeutic effect of the heparin?

• A. Platelet count
• B. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT)
• C. Prothrombin time (PT)
• D. Bleeding time

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The Partial Thromboplastin Time (PTT) is the correct laboratory value to monitor heparin therapy. PTT measures the time it takes for blood to clot and is specifically used to evaluate the effectiveness of anticoagulation therapy such as heparin. Monitoring the PTT helps ensure that the heparin dose is within the therapeutic range. Platelet count, Prothrombin time (PT), and Bleeding time are not specific laboratory values for monitoring the therapeutic effect of heparin therapy. Platelet count is more indicative of platelet function, PT is used to monitor warfarin therapy, and Bleeding time assesses platelet function rather than the effect of heparin therapy.

3. A nurse is caring for a client with a history of substance abuse. Which of the following interventions should the nurse prioritize?

• A. Monitor for withdrawal symptoms
• B. Encourage social activities
• C. Schedule regular follow-ups
• D. Provide educational materials

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor for withdrawal symptoms. This is a priority because individuals with a history of substance abuse are at risk of experiencing withdrawal symptoms when the substance is no longer used. Monitoring for withdrawal symptoms is crucial to ensure the client's safety and to manage any potential complications related to substance withdrawal. Encouraging social activities, scheduling regular follow-ups, and providing educational materials are also important aspects of care, but they are not as critical as monitoring for withdrawal symptoms in this immediate scenario.

4. A client with a permanent spinal cord injury is scheduled for discharge. Which of the following client statements indicates that the client is coping effectively?

• A. “I would like to play wheelchair basketball. When I get stronger, I think I’ll look for a league.”
• B. “I’m glad I’ll only be in this wheelchair temporarily. I can’t wait to get back to running.”
• C. “I’m so upset that this happened to me. What did I do to deserve this, and why am I not getting better?”
• D. “I feel like I’ll never be able to do anything that I want to again. All I am is a burden to my family.”

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Choice A is the correct answer. This statement demonstrates effective coping as the client is showing acceptance of their disability and planning for the future with realistic goals. Choice B reflects denial of the permanent disability by stating that they will only be in a wheelchair temporarily. Choice C shows distress and a lack of acceptance by questioning why the injury happened and why they are not improving. Choice D indicates feelings of hopelessness and being a burden, which are not signs of effective coping.

5. A nurse in an outpatient facility is assessing a client who is prescribed furosemide 40 mg daily, but the client reports she has been taking extra doses to promote weight loss. Which of the following indicates she is dehydrated?

• A. Urine specific gravity of 1.035
• B. Oliguria, increased urine concentration, and an increase in urine specific gravity greater than 1.030
• C. Polyuria
• D. Hypotension

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Oliguria (reduced urine output), increased urine concentration, and a urine specific gravity greater than 1.030 are indicative of dehydration, particularly in clients using diuretics excessively. Choice A is incorrect because a urine specific gravity of 1.035 is high, indicating concentrated urine but not specifically dehydration. Choice C, polyuria, refers to increased urine output and is not consistent with dehydration. Choice D, hypotension, is a sign of fluid volume deficit but is not specific to dehydration as described in the scenario.

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