Nursing Elites

1. When reinforcing teaching with a group of new parents about proper techniques for bottle feeding, which of the following instructions should be provided?

• A. Burp the newborn at the end of the feeding
• B. Hold the newborn close in a supine position
• C. Keep the nipple full of formula throughout the feeding
• D. Refrigerate any unused formula

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct technique for bottle feeding includes keeping the nipple full of formula throughout the feeding to prevent air from entering the baby's stomach. This helps reduce the risk of the baby swallowing air, which can lead to discomfort and colic. Therefore, maintaining a full nipple during feeding is essential for the baby's comfort and digestion. Option A is incorrect as burping should be done during the feeding to prevent excessive air intake. Option B is incorrect as the baby should be held semi-upright, not in a supine position, to reduce the risk of choking and ear infections. Option D is irrelevant to the feeding process and does not contribute to the baby's well-being.

2. When monitoring uterine contractions in a client in the active phase of the first stage of labor, which finding should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Contractions lasting longer than 90 seconds
• B. Contractions occurring every 3 to 5 minutes
• C. Contractions are strong in intensity
• D. Client reports feeling contractions in the lower back

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During the active phase of the first stage of labor, contractions lasting longer than 90 seconds can indicate uterine hyperstimulation, leading to decreased placental perfusion and fetal oxygenation. This finding should be reported to the provider for further evaluation and management. Choices B, C, and D are not the priority findings in this scenario. Contractions occurring every 3 to 5 minutes are within the normal range for the active phase of labor. Strong contractions and feeling contractions in the lower back are common experiences during labor and not necessarily concerning unless associated with other complications.

3. A client is scheduled for a maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein test at 15 weeks of gestation. The client asks the nurse about the purpose of this test. What explanation should the nurse provide?

• A. This test screens for neural tube defects and other developmental abnormalities in the fetus.
• B. It assesses various markers of fetal well-being.
• C. This test identifies an Rh incompatibility between the mother and fetus.
• D. It is a screening test for spinal defects in the fetus.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein (MSAFP) test is performed around 15-18 weeks of gestation to screen for neural tube defects and other developmental abnormalities in the fetus, not to assess fetal lung maturity, markers of fetal well-being, or Rh incompatibility between the mother and fetus. Choice A is the correct answer as it accurately reflects the purpose of the MSAFP test. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the primary goal of this screening test.

4. After an amniotomy, what is the priority nursing action?

• A. Observe color and consistency of fluid
• B. Assess the fetal heart rate pattern
• C. Assess the client's temperature
• D. Evaluate the client for the presence of chills and increased uterine tenderness using palpation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: After an amniotomy, the priority nursing action is to assess the fetal heart rate pattern. This is crucial to monitor for any signs of fetal distress, as changes in the fetal heart rate could indicate potential complications related to the procedure. Observing the color and consistency of the fluid (Choice A) is important but not the priority over assessing fetal well-being. Assessing the client's temperature (Choice C) and evaluating the client for chills and increased uterine tenderness (Choice D) are not immediate priorities following an amniotomy.

5. A client in active labor is being prepared for epidural analgesia. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Have the client sit upright on the bed with legs crossed.
• B. Administer a 500 mL bolus of lactated Ringer's solution prior to induction.
• C. Inform the client that the anesthetic effect will last for approximately 2 hours.
• D. Obtain a 30-minute electronic fetal monitoring (EFM) strip prior to induction.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Obtaining a 30-minute electronic fetal monitoring (EFM) strip prior to epidural analgesia is crucial to establish a baseline for fetal heart rate and uterine activity. This baseline helps in monitoring fetal well-being during labor and assessing the effect of analgesia on the baby. It enables the healthcare team to identify any changes in the fetal heart rate pattern and uterine contractions, ensuring the safety of both the mother and the baby. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because having the client sit upright with legs crossed is not necessary for epidural placement, administering a bolus of lactated Ringer's solution is not typically done before epidural analgesia, and the duration of the anesthetic effect varies and is not accurately 2 hours.

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