ATI LPN
ATI Maternal Newborn
1. During ambulation to the bathroom, a postpartum client experiences a gush of dark red blood that soon stops. On data collection, a nurse finds the uterus to be firm, midline, and at the level of the umbilicus. Which of the following findings should the nurse interpret this data as being?
- A. Evidence of a possible vaginal hematoma
- B. An indication of a cervical or perineal laceration
- C. A normal postpartum discharge of lochia
- D. Abnormally excessive lochia rubra flow
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The nurse should interpret this data as a normal postpartum discharge of lochia. Lochia is the normal vaginal discharge after childbirth, and the gush of dark red blood upon ambulation is typical due to the pooling of blood in the vagina when lying down, which is then released upon standing. The firm, midline uterus at the level of the umbilicus indicates normal involution of the uterus postpartum. Therefore, this scenario is consistent with the expected postpartum physiological changes rather than complications like hematoma, lacerations, or abnormal excessive bleeding. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because the described findings are more indicative of normal postpartum processes rather than complications such as vaginal hematoma, lacerations, or excessive bleeding.
2. A client is postpartum and has idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP). Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Decreased platelet count
- B. Increased erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)
- C. Decreased megakaryocytes
- D. Increased WBC
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) is characterized by an autoimmune response that leads to a decreased platelet count. This condition increases the risk of bleeding due to the low platelet levels. Monitoring the platelet count is crucial in managing ITP, as it helps determine the risk of bleeding and guides treatment decisions. Therefore, the correct finding to expect in a client with ITP is a decreased platelet count. Choice B, an increased erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR), is not typically associated with ITP. Choice C, decreased megakaryocytes, may be seen in conditions like aplastic anemia but are not a typical finding in ITP. Choice D, an increased white blood cell count (WBC), is not a characteristic feature of ITP.
3. A client at 32 weeks of gestation with placenta previa is actively bleeding. Which medication should the provider likely prescribe?
- A. Betamethasone
- B. Indomethacin
- C. Nifedipine
- D. Methylergonovine
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In cases of placenta previa with active bleeding at 32 weeks of gestation, Betamethasone is prescribed to accelerate fetal lung maturity in anticipation of potential preterm delivery. This medication helps in reducing the risk of respiratory distress syndrome in the newborn, which is crucial in managing such high-risk pregnancies. Indomethacin is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug not indicated in this scenario and may be contraindicated due to its effects on platelet function and potential risk of bleeding. Nifedipine is a calcium channel blocker used for conditions like preterm labor or hypertension, not specifically for placenta previa with active bleeding. Methylergonovine is a uterotonic drug used to prevent or control postpartum hemorrhage, not indicated for placenta previa with active bleeding.
4. A client has a new prescription for chlamydia. Which of the following statements should the nurse provide?
- A. This infection is treated with one dose of azithromycin.
- B. If your sexual partner has no symptoms, no medication is needed.
- C. You should avoid sexual relations for 3 days.
- D. You need to return in 6 months for retesting.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct treatment for chlamydia is a one-time dose of azithromycin. It is crucial for the client to understand the correct medication regimen for effective treatment. Choice B is incorrect because treatment is necessary for the partner even if asymptomatic. Choice C is incorrect because sexual relations should be avoided until treatment is completed. Choice D is incorrect as retesting should generally occur 3 months after treatment.
5. A nurse is developing a plan of care for a client who has preeclampsia and is receiving magnesium sulfate via a continuous IV infusion. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan?
- A. Monitor the client's blood pressure every hour.
- B. Restrict the total hourly intake to 200 mL.
- C. Monitor the FHR continuously.
- D. Administer protamine sulfate for manifestations of toxicity.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. When a client with preeclampsia is receiving magnesium sulfate via continuous IV infusion, it is crucial to monitor the fetal heart rate (FHR) continuously. Magnesium sulfate is given to prevent seizures and is considered a high-alert medication that requires close monitoring, especially of FHR and uterine contractions. Monitoring the client's blood pressure every hour, as in choice A, is important but not as crucial as continuous FHR monitoring. Restricting the total hourly intake to 200 mL, as in choice B, is not a relevant intervention for a client receiving magnesium sulfate. Administering protamine sulfate for manifestations of toxicity, as in choice D, is incorrect as protamine sulfate is not the antidote for magnesium sulfate toxicity.
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