ATI LPN
Maternal Newborn ATI Proctored Exam
1. During a nonstress test for a pregnant client, a nurse uses an acoustic vibration device. The client inquires about its purpose. Which response should the nurse provide?
- A. It is used to stimulate uterine contractions.
- B. It will decrease the incidence of uterine contractions.
- C. It lulls the fetus to sleep.
- D. It awakens a sleeping fetus.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The acoustic vibration device is utilized during a nonstress test to awaken a sleeping fetus. This action helps ensure more accurate test results by eliciting fetal movements and heart rate accelerations, which are indicators of fetal well-being. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because the primary purpose of the acoustic vibration device during a nonstress test is not to stimulate uterine contractions, decrease uterine contractions, or lull the fetus to sleep. Instead, it is specifically used to awaken a sleeping fetus to assess fetal well-being.
2. A nurse is teaching clients in a prenatal class about the importance of taking folic acid during pregnancy. The nurse should instruct the clients to consume an adequate amount of folic acid from various sources to prevent which of the following fetal abnormalities?
- A. Neural tube defect
- B. Trisomy 21
- C. Cleft lip
- D. Atrial septal defect
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The nurse should educate clients that inadequate folic acid intake is associated with an increased risk of neural tube defects in newborns. Consuming an adequate amount of folic acid from sources like fortified cereals, oranges, artichokes, liver, broccoli, and asparagus can help prevent this serious fetal abnormality. Trisomy 21 (Choice B) is caused by an extra chromosome 21 and is not preventable by folic acid intake. Cleft lip (Choice C) and atrial septal defect (Choice D) are not directly linked to folic acid intake during pregnancy.
3. While assisting with the care of a client in active labor, a nurse observes clear fluid and a loop of pulsating umbilical cord outside the client's vagina. Which of the following actions should the nurse perform first?
- A. Place the client in the Trendelenburg position
- B. Apply finger pressure to the presenting part
- C. Administer oxygen at 10 L/min via a non-rebreather
- D. Call for assistance
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In the scenario of umbilical cord prolapse during labor, the nurse should first call for assistance. Umbilical cord prolapse is a critical obstetric emergency that requires immediate attention and skilled assistance. Calling for help ensures that additional support is on the way to provide prompt intervention. Placing the client in the Trendelenburg position (Choice A) is no longer recommended as it may worsen the situation. Applying finger pressure to the presenting part (Choice B) can further compress the cord. Administering oxygen (Choice C) is important but should come after addressing the prolapsed cord.
4. A healthcare professional is assessing four newborns. Which of the following findings should the professional report to the provider?
- A. A newborn who is 26 hours old and has erythema toxicum on their face
- B. A newborn who is 32 hours old and has not passed meconium stool
- C. A newborn who is 12 hours old and has pink-tinged urine
- D. A newborn who is 18 hours old and has an axillary temperature of 37.7° C (99.9° F)
Correct answer: D
Rationale: An axillary temperature greater than 37.5° C (99.5° F) is above the expected reference range for a newborn and can be an indication of sepsis. Therefore, the healthcare professional should report this finding to the provider for further evaluation and management to rule out sepsis. Choices A, B, and C are within the expected range of normal findings for newborns. Erythema toxicum is a common and benign rash in newborns, not requiring immediate reporting. Not passing meconium stool within the first 24-48 hours can be normal, and pink-tinged urine can be due to uric acid crystals excretion, which is also common in newborns.
5. A client in a family planning clinic requests oral contraceptives. Which of the following findings in the client's history should be recognized as contraindications to oral contraceptives? (Select all that apply.)
- A. Cholecystitis
- B. Hypertension
- C. Migraine headaches
- D. All of the above
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Cholecystitis is a correct answer. A history of gallbladder disease, such as cholecystitis, is a contraindication for the use of oral contraceptives. Hypertension is a correct answer. Hypertension is also a contraindication for the use of oral contraceptives due to the increased risk of complications. Migraine headaches are a correct answer. A history of migraine headaches is a contraindication for the use of oral contraceptives, especially for those with aura. Selecting 'All of the above' is correct as all the mentioned conditions (cholecystitis, hypertension, and migraine headaches) are contraindications for oral contraceptives. Human papillomavirus and anxiety disorder are incorrect choices as they are not contraindications for the use of oral contraceptives.
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