ATI LPN
Maternal Newborn ATI Proctored Exam
1. During a nonstress test for a pregnant client, a nurse uses an acoustic vibration device. The client inquires about its purpose. Which response should the nurse provide?
- A. It is used to stimulate uterine contractions.
- B. It will decrease the incidence of uterine contractions.
- C. It lulls the fetus to sleep.
- D. It awakens a sleeping fetus.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The acoustic vibration device is utilized during a nonstress test to awaken a sleeping fetus. This action helps ensure more accurate test results by eliciting fetal movements and heart rate accelerations, which are indicators of fetal well-being. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because the primary purpose of the acoustic vibration device during a nonstress test is not to stimulate uterine contractions, decrease uterine contractions, or lull the fetus to sleep. Instead, it is specifically used to awaken a sleeping fetus to assess fetal well-being.
2. A charge nurse is making assignments for the upcoming shift. What assignment should the charge nurse give to an LPN?
- A. A client who requires complex medication management
- B. A client who has dehydration and inflammatory bowel disease (IBD)
- C. A client needing assessment of a new diagnosis
- D. A client requiring a nursing care plan update
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct assignment for an LPN would be a client who has dehydration and inflammatory bowel disease (IBD). This choice is appropriate because it involves monitoring the client's condition, providing basic care, and assisting with activities of daily living, which align with the scope of practice for LPNs. Choices A, C, and D involve tasks that are more complex and require a higher level of nursing education and training, making them less suitable for an LPN.
3. A client with portal hypertension who has developed ascites is scheduled for a paracentesis. What pre-procedure nursing intervention is essential?
- A. Encourage the client to empty the bladder
- B. Administer a laxative to clear the bowels
- C. Restrict the client's fluid intake
- D. Place the client in a supine position
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Emptying the bladder before a paracentesis is essential to prevent bladder injury during the procedure. A full bladder may be in the path of the needle insertion, increasing the risk of bladder puncture. Encouraging the client to empty the bladder ensures their safety and reduces the likelihood of complications.
4. People with phenylketonuria should avoid foods made with which nonnutritive sweetener?
- A. acesulfame-K
- B. aspartame
- C. saccharin
- D. sucralose
Correct answer: B
Rationale: People with phenylketonuria should avoid aspartame because it contains phenylalanine, which they cannot metabolize. Acesulfame-K, saccharin, and sucralose do not contain phenylalanine and are safe for individuals with phenylketonuria. Therefore, the correct answer is B. Acesulfame-K, saccharin, and sucralose are incorrect choices because they do not pose a risk for individuals with phenylketonuria due to the absence of phenylalanine in their composition.
5. A 28-year-old woman presents with abdominal pain, diarrhea, and weight loss. She has a history of recurrent mouth ulcers and a perianal fistula. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Ulcerative colitis
- B. Irritable bowel syndrome
- C. Crohn's disease
- D. Diverticulitis
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The combination of symptoms including recurrent mouth ulcers, perianal fistula, abdominal pain, diarrhea, and weight loss is characteristic of Crohn's disease. These extra-intestinal manifestations, along with the gastrointestinal symptoms, point towards Crohn's disease rather than ulcerative colitis, irritable bowel syndrome, or diverticulitis.
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