Nursing Elites

1. A client with a new diagnosis of type 2 diabetes mellitus inquires about information concerning oral antidiabetic agents. In addition to the provider, where should the nurse refer the client for information?

• A. Family members
• B. Pharmacist
• C. Dietitian
• D. American Diabetes Association

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: American Diabetes Association. The American Diabetes Association is a reputable source that provides credible information on managing diabetes. While family members can offer support, they may not have the specialized knowledge on oral antidiabetic agents. Pharmacists are knowledgeable about medications but may not provide comprehensive information on diabetes management. Dietitians can offer valuable advice on nutrition but may not cover specific details about oral antidiabetic agents. Therefore, referring the client to the American Diabetes Association ensures access to accurate and detailed information related to their condition.

2. What is the priority when managing a client with a chest tube postoperatively?

• A. Clamp the chest tube for 30 minutes every 4 hours
• B. Check for air leaks and proper functioning of the chest tube
• C. Encourage deep breathing and coughing every 2 hours
• D. Encourage frequent coughing to clear secretions

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The priority when managing a client with a chest tube postoperatively is to check for air leaks and ensure the proper functioning of the chest tube. This is crucial to prevent complications such as pneumothorax or hemothorax. Clamping the chest tube intermittently can lead to a buildup of pressure in the pleural space and should not be done without a specific medical indication. Encouraging deep breathing and coughing helps with lung expansion but is not the priority over ensuring the chest tube's proper function. Encouraging frequent coughing may increase the risk of dislodging the chest tube or causing complications.

3. What are the key signs of hyperkalemia and how should it be treated?

• A. Elevated potassium levels, muscle weakness; administer calcium gluconate
• B. Decreased potassium levels, confusion; administer potassium chloride
• C. Elevated sodium levels, bradycardia; administer sodium bicarbonate
• D. Low sodium levels, muscle cramps; administer sodium chloride

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct signs of hyperkalemia include elevated potassium levels and muscle weakness. The treatment involves administering calcium gluconate to help stabilize the heart. Choice B is incorrect as hyperkalemia is characterized by elevated, not decreased, potassium levels. Choice C is incorrect as hyperkalemia does not involve elevated sodium levels, and the treatment is not sodium bicarbonate. Choice D is incorrect as hyperkalemia does not lead to low sodium levels, and sodium chloride is not the treatment for hyperkalemia.

4. A nurse has administered medications to a group of clients. For which of the following client situations should the nurse complete an incident report?

• A. Administering acetaminophen to an NPO client
• B. Administering insulin lispro to an NPO client
• C. Administering medication to the incorrect client
• D. Administering anticoagulants without checking INR

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because administering insulin lispro to an NPO client can lead to hypoglycemia due to the lack of food to balance the medication. This situation poses a serious risk to the client's safety and should be documented in an incident report. Choice A is not as critical as insulin administration for an NPO client. Choice C is also serious but does not pose an immediate risk to the client's health. Choice D, administering anticoagulants without checking the INR, is important but does not require an incident report unless adverse effects occur, as it may not immediately endanger the client's life.

5. A healthcare provider is caring for a client with a pressure ulcer and needs to review the client's medical history. Which of the following findings is expected?

• A. A Braden scale score of 20
• B. An albumin level of 3 g/dL
• C. A hemoglobin level of 13 g/dL
• D. A Norton scale score of 18

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A serum albumin level of 3 g/dL is indicative of poor nutrition, a common factor in the development of pressure ulcers. The Braden scale assesses the risk of developing pressure ulcers but does not reflect the client's medical history. Hemoglobin level is more related to oxygen-carrying capacity rather than pressure ulcer development. The Norton scale evaluates risk for developing pressure ulcers but is not typically part of a client's medical history.

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