which of the following interventions should the nurse implement for a client with hyperkalemia
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 with NGN

1. Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement for a client with hyperkalemia?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with hyperkalemia is to administer calcium gluconate. Calcium gluconate helps counteract the effects of hyperkalemia by stabilizing the cardiac cell membrane. Increasing fluid intake (Choice B) may not effectively lower potassium levels. Administering a diuretic (Choice C) or sodium bicarbonate (Choice D) is not the primary treatment for hyperkalemia and may not address the immediate need to lower potassium levels.

2. A client with a tracheostomy is exhibiting signs of respiratory distress. What should the nurse do first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client with a tracheostomy is experiencing respiratory distress, the priority action is to suction the tracheostomy to clear the airway and improve breathing. This helps remove secretions or blockages that may be causing the distress. Notifying the healthcare provider (Choice A) can be done after ensuring immediate airway clearance. Administering a bronchodilator (Choice C) would not address the primary issue of airway clearance in a tracheostomy patient. Increasing the oxygen flow rate (Choice D) may be necessary but should come after ensuring the airway is clear.

3. A nurse is teaching a client who has chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) about breathing exercises. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Use pursed-lip breathing during physical activity.' Pursed-lip breathing is a beneficial technique for clients with COPD as it helps improve airflow by keeping the airways open longer. Choice A is incorrect as abdominal breathing may not be as effective in COPD as pursed-lip breathing. Choice B, inhaling quickly and deeply through the nose, is not recommended as it can lead to hyperventilation. Choice D, breathing quickly and deeply during exercise, is also not suitable for clients with COPD as it can cause increased shortness of breath.

4. A client is receiving phenytoin for management of grand mal seizures and has a new prescription for isoniazid and rifampin. Which of the following should the nurse conclude if the client develops ataxia and incoordination?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Ataxia and incoordination are signs of phenytoin toxicity rather than adverse reactions to rifampin or isoniazid. These symptoms indicate that the client is experiencing an adverse effect of phenytoin, requiring a dose adjustment. Choice A is incorrect because rifampin is not typically associated with ataxia and incoordination. Choice B is incorrect as the development of ataxia and incoordination does not necessarily mean the seizure disorder is no longer under control. Choice D is incorrect as the symptoms are more indicative of phenytoin toxicity rather than adverse effects of combination antimicrobial therapy.

5. A client post-lumbar puncture should be in which position?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most appropriate position for a client post-lumbar puncture is the supine position. Placing the client in a supine position helps prevent spinal headaches by allowing the puncture site to seal effectively and reducing the risk of cerebrospinal fluid leakage. High Fowler's position, prone position, and sitting position are not recommended after a lumbar puncture as they may increase the risk of complications like spinal headaches.

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