a 23 year old woman at 32 weeks gestation is seen in the outpatient clinic which of the following findings if assessed by the nurse would indicate a p
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ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2020 Answers

1. A 23-year-old woman at 32-weeks gestation is seen in the outpatient clinic. Which of the following findings, if assessed by the nurse, would indicate a possible complication?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Positive urine glucose and acetone could indicate gestational diabetes or preeclampsia, both of which are complications. Choice B, pedal edema, is common in pregnancy but may also be a sign of preeclampsia if severe. Choice C, an increase in vaginal discharge, is a normal finding in pregnancy due to hormonal changes. Choice D, pressure against the diaphragm when the baby moves, is a normal sensation due to the growing uterus displacing abdominal contents.

2. A healthcare professional is reviewing the laboratory report of a client who is receiving filgrastim. Which of the following laboratory values should the healthcare professional monitor to determine the effectiveness of the treatment?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Filgrastim works by stimulating the production of white blood cells. Therefore, monitoring the white blood cell (WBC) count is essential to assess the effectiveness of the treatment. Choice B, serum potassium, is not directly affected by filgrastim therapy. Choice C, hemoglobin level, is important but not the primary indicator of filgrastim's effectiveness. Choice D, serum creatinine, is unrelated to the action of filgrastim and would not reflect its effectiveness.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who is in severe pain. Which of the following questions should the nurse ask first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Where is your pain located?' When a client is experiencing severe pain, determining the location of the pain is crucial as it helps the nurse identify potential causes and select appropriate interventions. Option A may be important but assessing the location of pain takes precedence as it can provide valuable information for immediate management. Option C focuses on the current treatment, which is important but not the first priority. Option D, knowing when the pain started, is relevant but does not help in immediate pain management.

4. What should a healthcare professional prioritize when managing a client with delirium?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When managing a client with delirium, the priority should be to identify the underlying cause of the delirium. Delirium can result from various triggers such as infections, medication side effects, or metabolic imbalances. By determining the root cause, healthcare professionals can provide targeted treatment and improve outcomes. Administering sedative medication (Choice A) could exacerbate delirium as these drugs can worsen confusion. While providing a low-stimulation environment (Choice B) is beneficial, it is not as critical as identifying the cause. Controlling behavioral symptoms with medication (Choice D) should only be considered after identifying and addressing the underlying cause of delirium.

5. Which nursing action is a priority when managing a client with a wound infection?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Performing a wound culture before administering antibiotics is crucial when managing a client with a wound infection. This step helps identify the specific pathogens causing the infection, allowing for the prescription of the most effective antibiotics. Changing the wound dressing every 24 hours (Choice A) is important for wound care but not the priority when an infection is present. Cleansing the wound with alcohol-based solutions (Choice C) can be too harsh and may delay wound healing. Applying a wet-to-dry dressing (Choice D) is not recommended for infected wounds as it can cause trauma to the wound bed during dressing changes.

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