ATI LPN
ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2020 Answers
1. A nurse is reinforcing teaching about cane use for a client with left-leg weakness. What should the nurse instruct the client to do?
- A. Use the cane on the weak side
- B. Maintain two points of support on the ground at all times
- C. Advance the cane 30 to 45 cm with each step
- D. Advance the cane and the strong leg simultaneously
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Maintain two points of support on the ground at all times. When using a cane for left-leg weakness, the client should hold the cane in the right hand and advance the cane and the weak leg simultaneously. This technique provides the necessary support and stability. Option A is incorrect because the cane should be used on the side opposite the weakness to provide support. Option C is incorrect as advancing the cane too far with each step may cause the client to lose balance. Option D is incorrect because advancing the cane and the strong leg simultaneously does not provide the needed support for the weakened leg.
2. A nurse is caring for a client with a pressure ulcer. Which of the following interventions is most appropriate?
- A. Administer a protein supplement
- B. Increase protein intake in the client's diet
- C. Increase IV fluid intake to improve hydration
- D. Cleanse the wound from the center outwards
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to cleanse the wound from the center outwards. This technique helps prevent infection and promotes healing by ensuring that any contaminants are moved away from the center of the wound. Administering a protein supplement (choice A) or increasing protein intake in the client's diet (choice B) may be beneficial for overall healing but are not the most appropriate interventions specifically for wound care. Increasing IV fluid intake (choice C) is important for hydration but is not the most appropriate intervention for managing a pressure ulcer.
3. The nurse is caring for a manic client in the seclusion room, and it is time for lunch. It is MOST appropriate for the nurse to take which of the following actions?
- A. Take the client to the dining room with 1:1 supervision
- B. Inform the client they may go to the dining room when they control their behavior
- C. Hold the meal until the client is able to come out of seclusion
- D. Serve the meal to the client in the seclusion room
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In the scenario described, the manic client is in the seclusion room, and it is most appropriate for the nurse to serve the meal to the client in the seclusion room. This action helps maintain the client's nutritional needs while managing their behavior. Taking the client to the dining room with 1:1 supervision (Choice A) may pose safety risks both for the client and others. Informing the client they may go to the dining room when they control their behavior (Choice B) may not be feasible in a manic state. Holding the meal until the client is able to come out of seclusion (Choice C) can lead to nutritional deficiencies and does not address the immediate need for nutrition during the episode of mania.
4. A client is receiving phenytoin for management of grand mal seizures and has a new prescription for isoniazid and rifampin. Which of the following should the nurse conclude if the client develops ataxia and incoordination?
- A. The client is experiencing an adverse reaction to rifampin.
- B. The client's seizure disorder is no longer under control.
- C. The client is showing evidence of phenytoin toxicity.
- D. The client is having adverse effects due to combination antimicrobial therapy.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Ataxia and incoordination are signs of phenytoin toxicity rather than adverse reactions to rifampin or isoniazid. These symptoms indicate that the client is experiencing an adverse effect of phenytoin, requiring a dose adjustment. Choice A is incorrect because rifampin is not typically associated with ataxia and incoordination. Choice B is incorrect as the development of ataxia and incoordination does not necessarily mean the seizure disorder is no longer under control. Choice D is incorrect as the symptoms are more indicative of phenytoin toxicity rather than adverse effects of combination antimicrobial therapy.
5. A nurse in a long-term care facility is assisting with an in-service for newly hired assistive personnel about legal issues within the facility. Which of the following should the nurse include as an example of assault?
- A. Threatening to withhold food from a client
- B. Informing a client about an upcoming procedure
- C. Informing a client about risks of refusing treatment
- D. Informing a client that they will be given an injection against their will
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because assault involves threatening a client with harm or unwanted procedures. In this scenario, informing a client that they will be given an injection against their will constitutes assault. Choices A, B, and C do not involve the element of threatening harm or unwanted procedures, making them incorrect. Choice A is more related to neglect, choice B is related to informing the client about a procedure, and choice C is related to informed consent and refusal of treatment, not assault.
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