Nursing Elites

1. What is the appropriate intervention for a patient experiencing hypovolemic shock?

• A. Administer IV fluids
• B. Monitor blood pressure
• C. Place the patient in Trendelenburg position
• D. Administer oxygen

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct intervention for a patient experiencing hypovolemic shock is to administer IV fluids. In hypovolemic shock, there is a significant loss of circulating blood volume leading to inadequate perfusion to tissues. Administering IV fluids is crucial to restore blood volume and improve tissue perfusion. Monitoring blood pressure (choice B) is important but not the primary intervention in hypovolemic shock. Placing the patient in Trendelenburg position (choice C) can worsen outcomes by increasing intracranial pressure and is no longer recommended. Administering oxygen (choice D) is beneficial for many conditions but does not address the underlying issue of inadequate circulating blood volume in hypovolemic shock.

2. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client with dementia who frequently becomes agitated. What should the nurse prioritize?

• A. Investigate the client's fluid and electrolyte balance
• B. Investigate the client's recent medication changes
• C. Investigate recent changes in cognitive functioning
• D. Investigate the client's psychosocial environment

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to investigate the client's recent medication changes. In a client with dementia who frequently becomes agitated, medication changes can often be a significant factor contributing to their behavior. Checking recent medication changes can help identify if any specific medication is causing or exacerbating the agitation. Choice A about fluid and electrolyte balance is less likely to be the priority unless there are specific indications in the medical record. Choice C, investigating recent changes in cognitive functioning, may be important but addressing the agitation first is a more immediate concern. Choice D, investigating the client's psychosocial environment, is also important but may not directly address the immediate cause of the agitation as medication changes could.

3. A healthcare professional is managing a client with a wound infection. What is the priority action?

• A. Change the wound dressing every 12 hours
• B. Perform a wound culture before applying antibiotics
• C. Apply a wet-to-dry dressing to the wound
• D. Cleanse the wound with a solution of alcohol and water

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Performing a wound culture before applying antibiotics is crucial to identify the specific pathogen causing the infection. This helps in selecting the most effective antibiotics for treatment. Changing the wound dressing, applying a wet-to-dry dressing, or cleansing the wound are important interventions but should follow the assessment and identification of the infecting organism through a wound culture to guide appropriate treatment.

4. A client with heart failure is receiving furosemide. Which of the following assessment findings indicates that the medication is effective?

• A. Elevated blood pressure.
• B. Absence of adventitious breath sounds.
• C. Weight gain of 1.4 kg (3 lb) in 24 hr.
• D. Decreased urine output.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The absence of adventitious breath sounds indicates that furosemide is effective in managing heart failure. Adventitious breath sounds such as crackles indicate fluid accumulation in the lungs, a common complication of heart failure. Therefore, the absence of these abnormal sounds suggests that furosemide is effectively reducing fluid overload. Elevated blood pressure (choice A) is not a desired outcome in heart failure management. Weight gain (choice C) and decreased urine output (choice D) are signs of fluid retention and ineffective diuresis, indicating that furosemide is not working effectively.

5. A client is given morphine 6 mg IV push for postoperative pain. Following administration of this drug, the nurse observes the following: pulse 68, respirations 8, BP 100/68, client sleeping quietly. Which of the following nursing actions is MOST appropriate?

• A. Allow the client to sleep undisturbed
• B. Administer oxygen via facemask or nasal prongs
• C. Administer naloxone (Narcan)
• D. Place epinephrine 1:1,000 at the bedside

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer naloxone (Narcan). The client's vital signs indicate opioid-induced respiratory depression, which is a potential side effect of morphine. Naloxone is used to reverse the effects of opioids, particularly to restore normal respiratory function. Administering oxygen alone (Choice B) may not address the underlying cause of respiratory depression. Allowing the client to sleep undisturbed (Choice A) is inappropriate when signs of respiratory depression are present. Epinephrine (Choice D) is not indicated in this situation and is not used to reverse opioid effects.

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