ATI LPN
ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2024
1. Which dietary advice is most appropriate for a client with chronic kidney disease?
- A. Increase intake of fruits and vegetables
- B. Limit intake of potassium-rich foods
- C. Increase intake of dairy products
- D. Reduce intake of protein-rich foods
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The most appropriate dietary advice for a client with chronic kidney disease is to limit intake of potassium-rich foods. In chronic kidney disease, the kidneys have difficulty filtering potassium from the blood, leading to high levels that can be harmful. Therefore, reducing potassium intake is crucial to prevent complications. Choices A, C, and D are not the best options for individuals with chronic kidney disease. Increasing intake of fruits and vegetables (choice A) may actually increase potassium consumption. Increasing intake of dairy products (choice C) can lead to higher phosphorus and potassium levels. Reducing protein-rich foods (choice D) is not the primary focus in the early stages of chronic kidney disease, as protein is necessary for overall health unless kidney function declines significantly.
2. What is the healthcare provider's role in providing patient education about hypertension management?
- A. Encourage lifestyle modifications and medication adherence
- B. Advise patients to avoid physical activity
- C. Recommend a low-sodium diet
- D. Increase potassium in the diet
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Encourage lifestyle modifications and medication adherence. Patient education in hypertension management should focus on encouraging lifestyle changes like a healthy diet, exercise, stress management, and adherence to prescribed medications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because advising patients to avoid physical activity, recommending a low-sodium diet, and increasing potassium intake, although related to hypertension management, do not encompass the comprehensive approach needed for effective patient education on this topic.
3. A nurse is teaching a client who has peripheral arterial disease (PAD) about exercise recommendations. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Exercise to the point of pain
- B. Stop exercising if pain occurs
- C. Exercise only once per week
- D. Avoid walking to prevent pain
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct instruction the nurse should include is to 'Stop exercising if pain occurs.' In peripheral arterial disease (PAD), it is crucial to avoid exercising to the point of pain as this may worsen the condition and lead to complications. Exercising to the point of pain can result in inadequate blood flow to the extremities, causing further damage. By stopping exercise if pain occurs, the client can prevent exacerbating their condition. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because exercising to the point of pain, limiting exercise to once per week, and avoiding walking altogether are not recommended strategies for managing PAD and could potentially harm the client.
4. A client with a tracheostomy shows signs of respiratory distress. What action should the nurse take immediately?
- A. Increase the suction setting on the ventilator
- B. Administer a bronchodilator
- C. Suction the tracheostomy
- D. Encourage deep breathing exercises
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct immediate action for a client with a tracheostomy showing signs of respiratory distress is to suction the tracheostomy. Respiratory distress in this case is often caused by a blockage, which can be quickly relieved by suctioning to clear the airway. Increasing the suction setting on the ventilator (Choice A) may not address the immediate blockage in the tracheostomy. Administering a bronchodilator (Choice B) may help with bronchoconstriction but does not address the potential blockage in the tracheostomy. Encouraging deep breathing exercises (Choice D) may not be effective in relieving the immediate respiratory distress caused by a blocked tracheostomy.
5. A nurse is caring for a client who has an altered mental status and has become aggressive. Which of the following prescriptions should the nurse clarify with the provider prior to administration?
- A. Haloperidol
- B. Zolpidem
- C. Morphine
- D. Lorazepam
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Zolpidem. Zolpidem is a sedative-hypnotic medication that can worsen altered mental status, especially in clients who are already aggressive. Therefore, the nurse should clarify this prescription with the provider before administration to ensure it is safe for the client. Choice A, Haloperidol, is an antipsychotic commonly used to manage aggression in clients with altered mental status, making it an appropriate choice in this scenario. Choice C, Morphine, is an opioid analgesic and would not directly impact the client's altered mental status or aggression. Choice D, Lorazepam, is a benzodiazepine used to manage anxiety and agitation, which could be beneficial in this situation but does not have the same potential to exacerbate altered mental status as Zolpidem.
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