a nurse is caring for a client who takes prednisone daily for the treatment of chronic asthma the nurse should plan to monitor the client for which of
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ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 Quizlet

1. A client takes prednisone daily for the treatment of chronic asthma. The nurse should plan to monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Gastric ulcer formation. Prednisone, a corticosteroid, increases the risk of gastric ulcer formation, especially with long-term use. While prednisone can also lead to hyperglycemia (choice A) and hypertension (choice B) as adverse effects, monitoring for gastric ulcer formation is a priority due to its association with corticosteroid therapy. Diarrhea (choice D) is not a common adverse effect of prednisone and is less likely compared to gastric ulcers.

2. What is the recommended intervention for a patient experiencing severe hypoglycemia?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering glucagon is the recommended intervention for severe hypoglycemia, especially when the patient is unconscious or unable to consume oral glucose. Glucagon helps increase blood glucose levels rapidly by stimulating the release of stored glucose from the liver. Providing a source of glucose (Choice B) can be challenging if the patient is unable to swallow or unconscious, making glucagon a more effective option. Monitoring blood sugar levels (Choice C) and assessing vital signs (Choice D) are important aspects of managing hypoglycemia but are not the immediate intervention for severe cases where prompt elevation of blood glucose levels is necessary.

3. A nurse is providing care for a client with dementia who frequently wanders. What is the best strategy to ensure their safety?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The best strategy to ensure the safety of a client with dementia who frequently wanders is to place a bed exit alarm system. This system alerts staff when the client attempts to leave the bed, reducing the risk of falls. Choice A, using restraints, is not the best approach as it can lead to complications and is not recommended unless absolutely necessary. Choice B, encouraging the client to walk in a monitored area, may not be effective in preventing wandering as the client may still wander away. Choice D, asking family members to stay with the client at all times, may not be feasible or practical, especially for round-the-clock supervision.

4. What are the risk factors for deep vein thrombosis (DVT) and how can it be prevented?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Immobility and oral contraceptive use. Immobility and oral contraceptive use are significant risk factors for deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Immobility leads to blood stasis, increasing the risk of clot formation, while oral contraceptive use can promote hypercoagulability. Prevention strategies for DVT include promoting mobility to enhance blood circulation and using anticoagulants to prevent clot formation. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. While pregnancy and smoking can increase the risk of DVT, they are not the specific factors mentioned in the question. Similarly, obesity and varicose veins, as well as hypertension and high cholesterol, are not the primary risk factors associated with DVT.

5. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer a blood transfusion. What is the first step?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct first step before administering a blood transfusion is to verify that the client's blood type matches the blood product. This step is crucial to prevent transfusion reactions due to incompatibility. Choice A is incorrect because blood should not be administered through an IV push for a blood transfusion. Choice C is incorrect because it is not necessary for the client to eat before a blood transfusion. Choice D is incorrect because administering a diuretic is not a standard practice before starting a blood transfusion.

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