a nurse is caring for a client who takes prednisone daily for the treatment of chronic asthma the nurse should plan to monitor the client for which of
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ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 Quizlet

1. A client takes prednisone daily for the treatment of chronic asthma. The nurse should plan to monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Gastric ulcer formation. Prednisone, a corticosteroid, increases the risk of gastric ulcer formation, especially with long-term use. While prednisone can also lead to hyperglycemia (choice A) and hypertension (choice B) as adverse effects, monitoring for gastric ulcer formation is a priority due to its association with corticosteroid therapy. Diarrhea (choice D) is not a common adverse effect of prednisone and is less likely compared to gastric ulcers.

2. A client is given morphine 6 mg IV push for postoperative pain. Following administration of this drug, the nurse observes the following: pulse 68, respirations 8, BP 100/68, client sleeping quietly. Which of the following nursing actions is MOST appropriate?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer naloxone (Narcan). The client's vital signs indicate opioid-induced respiratory depression, which is a potential side effect of morphine. Naloxone is used to reverse the effects of opioids, particularly to restore normal respiratory function. Administering oxygen alone (Choice B) may not address the underlying cause of respiratory depression. Allowing the client to sleep undisturbed (Choice A) is inappropriate when signs of respiratory depression are present. Epinephrine (Choice D) is not indicated in this situation and is not used to reverse opioid effects.

3. What are the steps in managing a patient with a pressure ulcer?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Clean the wound and apply a hydrocolloid dressing. This step is crucial in managing a pressure ulcer as it helps protect the ulcer from infection and promotes healing by creating a moist environment conducive to tissue repair. Choice B, debriding necrotic tissue and applying antibiotics, is more suitable for managing infected pressure ulcers but not as the initial step. Choice C, applying an alginate dressing and elevating the affected area, may be part of the management but is not the initial step. Choice D, using moisture-retentive dressings and repositioning frequently, is important for prevention but not the first step in managing an existing pressure ulcer.

4. What is the priority in managing a client diagnosed with delirium?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The priority in managing a client diagnosed with delirium is to identify any underlying causes. Delirium can be caused by various factors such as infections, medications, or metabolic imbalances. By determining the root cause, healthcare providers can address the issue effectively and tailor the treatment plan accordingly. Administering anti-anxiety medication (Choice A) may help manage symptoms but does not address the underlying cause of delirium. Similarly, reducing environmental stimulation (Choice C) and encouraging deep breathing exercises (Choice D) may provide some relief, but they do not target the primary concern of identifying and addressing the underlying causes of delirium.

5. Which is the correct method for teaching a client to use a cane when they have left-leg weakness?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct method for teaching a client to use a cane when they have left-leg weakness is to maintain two points of support on the floor at all times. This approach ensures stability and helps the client maintain balance while using the cane. Choice A is incorrect because the cane should be used on the stronger side of the body to provide additional support. Choice B is incorrect as advancing the cane and the strong leg together may compromise stability. Choice D is incorrect as advancing the cane too far with each step can lead to imbalance and falls.

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