Nursing Elites

1. A client who is pregnant and has phenylketonuria (PKU) is receiving teaching from a nurse. Which of the following foods should the nurse instruct the client to eliminate from her diet?

• A. Peanut butter
• B. Potatoes
• C. Apple juice
• D. Broccoli

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Individuals with phenylketonuria (PKU) have difficulty breaking down phenylalanine, an amino acid found in protein-rich foods like peanut butter. Therefore, clients with PKU should avoid foods high in phenylalanine, such as peanut butter, to prevent adverse effects on their health. Choices B, C, and D are not typically high in phenylalanine and do not pose the same risk to individuals with PKU as peanut butter.

2. A woman in a women's health clinic is receiving teaching about nutritional intake during her 8th week of gestation. The healthcare provider should advise the woman to increase her daily intake of which of the following nutrients?

• A. Calcium
• B. Vitamin E
• C. Iron
• D. Vitamin D

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During pregnancy, the recommended daily iron intake is higher compared to non-pregnant women. Pregnant women should aim for 27 mg/day of iron, while non-pregnant women require 15 mg/day if under 19 years old and 18 mg/day if between 19 and 50 years old. Iron is essential during pregnancy to support the increased blood volume and ensure the proper oxygen supply to the fetus. Calcium is important for bone health but does not need a significant increase during early pregnancy. Vitamin E and Vitamin D are important but do not have specific increases recommended during the 8th week of gestation.

3. A client in active labor is being prepared for epidural analgesia. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Have the client sit upright on the bed with legs crossed.
• B. Administer a 500 mL bolus of lactated Ringer's solution prior to induction.
• C. Inform the client that the anesthetic effect will last for approximately 2 hours.
• D. Obtain a 30-minute electronic fetal monitoring (EFM) strip prior to induction.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Obtaining a 30-minute electronic fetal monitoring (EFM) strip prior to epidural analgesia is crucial to establish a baseline for fetal heart rate and uterine activity. This baseline helps in monitoring fetal well-being during labor and assessing the effect of analgesia on the baby. It enables the healthcare team to identify any changes in the fetal heart rate pattern and uterine contractions, ensuring the safety of both the mother and the baby. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because having the client sit upright with legs crossed is not necessary for epidural placement, administering a bolus of lactated Ringer's solution is not typically done before epidural analgesia, and the duration of the anesthetic effect varies and is not accurately 2 hours.

4. A client who received carboprost for postpartum hemorrhage is being assessed by a nurse. Which of the following findings is an adverse effect of this medication?

• A. Hypertension
• B. Hypothermia
• C. Constipation
• D. Muscle weakness

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypertension. Carboprost is a vasoconstrictor medication used to control postpartum hemorrhage by contracting the uterus. One of the adverse effects of carboprost is hypertension due to its vasoconstrictive properties. Hypertension can occur as a result of increased peripheral vascular resistance. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Hypothermia, constipation, and muscle weakness are not typically associated with the administration of carboprost. It is crucial for the nurse to monitor the client's blood pressure closely while on carboprost to promptly detect and manage hypertension.

5. A client who is 12 hours postpartum has a fundus located two fingerbreadths above the umbilicus, deviated to the right of the midline, and less firm than previously noted. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Place the client in a side-lying position.
• B. Assist the client to the bathroom to void.
• C. Obtain a prescription for IV oxytocin.
• D. Administer methylergonovine.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the client's fundus findings indicate a distended bladder, which can lead to uterine atony. Assisting the client to the bathroom to void is essential as a distended bladder can inhibit the uterus from contracting normally. This action can help the uterus contract effectively and prevent complications such as postpartum hemorrhage. Placing the client in a side-lying position, obtaining a prescription for IV oxytocin, or administering methylergonovine are not the priority actions in this situation. Placing the client in a side-lying position might be indicated for fundal displacement, but it is not the priority here. Obtaining a prescription for IV oxytocin and administering methylergonovine are interventions for managing uterine atony, which is not the primary issue in this case; the priority is addressing the distended bladder.

Similar Questions