Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional in a provider's office is reviewing the medical record of a client who is in her first trimester of pregnancy. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional identify as a risk factor for the development of preeclampsia?

• A. Singleton pregnancy
• B. BMI of 20
• C. Maternal age of 32 years
• D. Pregestational diabetes mellitus

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Pregestational diabetes mellitus is a significant risk factor for the development of preeclampsia in pregnant individuals. Preeclampsia is more common in women with preexisting conditions such as diabetes, hypertension, renal disease, lupus, or rheumatoid arthritis. Singleton pregnancy, a BMI of 20, or maternal age of 32 years are not considered significant risk factors for developing preeclampsia.

2. When should a provider order a maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein (MSAFP) screening for pregnant clients?

• A. A client who has mitral valve prolapse
• B. A client who has been exposed to AIDS
• C. All pregnant clients
• D. A client who has a history of preterm labor

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein (MSAFP) screening is recommended for all pregnant clients to assess the risk of neural tube defects. It is a routine screening test used to detect increased levels of alpha-fetoprotein in maternal blood, which may indicate a higher risk for conditions such as neural tube defects in the developing fetus. Therefore, all pregnant clients, regardless of their medical history or risk factors, should undergo MSAFP screening as part of routine prenatal care. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because the MSAFP screening is not specific to certain medical conditions or histories; it is a standard screening procedure for all pregnant individuals to evaluate neural tube defect risk in the fetus.

3. A client who is pregnant and has phenylketonuria (PKU) is receiving teaching from a nurse. Which of the following foods should the nurse instruct the client to eliminate from her diet?

• A. Peanut butter
• B. Potatoes
• C. Apple juice
• D. Broccoli

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Individuals with phenylketonuria (PKU) have difficulty breaking down phenylalanine, an amino acid found in protein-rich foods like peanut butter. Therefore, clients with PKU should avoid foods high in phenylalanine, such as peanut butter, to prevent adverse effects on their health. Choices B, C, and D are not typically high in phenylalanine and do not pose the same risk to individuals with PKU as peanut butter.

4. During a teaching session with a client in labor, a nurse is explaining episiotomy. Which of the following information should the nurse include?

• A. An episiotomy is a perineal incision made by the provider to facilitate delivery of the fetus
• B. A fourth-degree episiotomy extends into the rectal area and is not recommended
• C. An episiotomy is an incision made by the provider to facilitate delivery of the fetus
• D. A mediolateral episiotomy is preferred over a median episiotomy for most deliveries

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because an episiotomy is an intentional incision made by the healthcare provider to widen the vaginal opening during delivery. This procedure is performed to facilitate the birth of the baby and prevent uncontrolled tearing of the perineum. It is important for the nurse to educate the client on the purpose and implications of episiotomy to ensure informed decision-making and proper postpartum care. Choice A is incorrect because an episiotomy is not a perineal tear but a deliberate incision. Choice B is incorrect because a fourth-degree episiotomy extending into the rectal area is not a standard practice and can lead to complications. Choice D is incorrect because a mediolateral episiotomy is not universally considered easier to repair than a median episiotomy; the choice of incision type depends on the healthcare provider's preference and clinical situation.

5. When calculating the Apgar score of a newborn at 1 minute after delivery, which of the following findings would result in a score of 6?

• A. 4
• B. 5
• C. 6
• D. 7

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The Apgar score is calculated based on five parameters: heart rate, respiratory effort, muscle tone, reflex irritability, and color. In this case, the newborn's findings at 1 minute after delivery indicate a heart rate >100/min (2 points), slow, weak cry (1 point), some flexion of extremities (1 point), grimace in response to suctioning (1 point), and body pink with blue extremities (1 point). Adding these points together results in a total Apgar score of 6, reflecting the newborn's initial assessment for their overall well-being. Choice A (4) is too low based on the given findings, while Choice B (5) is also lower than the correct score of 6. Choice D (7) is too high as it would require additional findings to reach that score.

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