ATI LPN
Maternal Newborn ATI Proctored Exam 2023
1. A healthcare provider is discussing the differences between true labor and false labor with a group of expectant parents. Which of the following characteristics should the healthcare provider include when discussing true labor?
- A. Contractions become stronger with walking.
- B. Discomfort can be relieved with a back massage.
- C. Contractions become irregular with a change in activity.
- D. Discomfort is felt above the umbilicus.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: During true labor, contractions typically become stronger and more regular with activity, such as walking. This is a key characteristic that helps differentiate true labor from false labor. In false labor, contractions often remain irregular and do not intensify with changes in activity. Choice B is incorrect because discomfort in true labor is not typically relieved with a back massage. Choice C is incorrect as contractions in true labor become stronger and more regular with activity rather than irregular. Choice D is incorrect because discomfort in true labor is usually felt in the lower abdomen and pelvis, not above the umbilicus.
2. A client who is breastfeeding and has mastitis is receiving teaching from the nurse. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?
- A. Limit the amount of time the infant nurses on each breast.
- B. Nurse the infant only on the unaffected breast until resolved.
- C. Completely empty each breast at each feeding or use a pump.
- D. Wear a tight-fitting bra until lactation has ceased.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct response is to completely empty each breast at each feeding or use a pump to prevent milk stasis, which can exacerbate mastitis. By ensuring proper drainage of the affected breast, the client can help alleviate symptoms and promote healing. Choice A is incorrect because limiting feeding time can lead to inadequate drainage, potentially worsening the condition. Choice B is incorrect as it can cause engorgement in the unaffected breast, leading to further complications. Choice D is incorrect as wearing a tight-fitting bra can worsen symptoms by putting pressure on the affected breast, hindering proper drainage and exacerbating mastitis.
3. When should a provider order a maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein (MSAFP) screening for pregnant clients?
- A. A client who has mitral valve prolapse
- B. A client who has been exposed to AIDS
- C. All pregnant clients
- D. A client who has a history of preterm labor
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein (MSAFP) screening is recommended for all pregnant clients to assess the risk of neural tube defects. It is a routine screening test used to detect increased levels of alpha-fetoprotein in maternal blood, which may indicate a higher risk for conditions such as neural tube defects in the developing fetus. Therefore, all pregnant clients, regardless of their medical history or risk factors, should undergo MSAFP screening as part of routine prenatal care. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because the MSAFP screening is not specific to certain medical conditions or histories; it is a standard screening procedure for all pregnant individuals to evaluate neural tube defect risk in the fetus.
4. A client has postpartum psychosis. Which of the following actions is the nurse's priority?
- A. Reinforce the importance of taking antipsychotics as prescribed
- B. Ask the client if they have thoughts of harming themselves or their infant
- C. Monitor the infant for signs of failure to thrive
- D. Check the client's medical record for a history of bipolar disorder
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In a situation where a client has postpartum psychosis, the priority action for the nurse is to ask the client if they have thoughts of harming themselves or their infant. This is crucial to assess the risk of harm and ensure the safety of the client and the infant. While reinforcing the importance of taking antipsychotics as prescribed is essential for treatment, safety concerns take precedence. Monitoring the infant for signs of failure to thrive is important for the infant's well-being but is not the priority when the immediate safety of the client and infant is at risk. Checking the client's medical record for a history of bipolar disorder is relevant for understanding the client's medical history but is not the priority when addressing current safety concerns.
5. A client is in labor and reports increasing rectal pressure. She is experiencing contractions 2 to 3 minutes apart, each lasting 80 to 90 seconds, and a vaginal examination reveals that her cervix is dilated to 9 cm. The client is in which of the following phases of labor?
- A. Active
- B. Transition
- C. Latent
- D. Descent
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The client is in the transition phase of labor, characterized by cervical dilatation of 8 to 10 cm and contractions every 2 to 3 minutes, each lasting 45 to 90 seconds. In this phase, the cervix is nearly fully dilated, preparing the client for the pushing stage. The active phase of labor typically involves cervical dilatation from 4 to 7 cm, whereas the latent phase is the early phase of labor when the cervix dilates from 0 to 3 cm. Descent is not a phase of labor but rather refers to the movement of the fetus through the birth canal during the second stage of labor.
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