Nursing Elites

1. A client is being taught about the use of an albuterol inhaler. Which of the following instructions should be included?

• A. Use the inhaler every 4 hours around the clock.
• B. Shake the inhaler well before use.
• C. Rinse your mouth with water after each use.
• D. Use the inhaler while lying down.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Shaking the inhaler well before use is a crucial step in ensuring proper medication delivery. This action helps disperse the medication evenly within the device, optimizing the effectiveness of each dose. It ensures that the client receives the intended amount of medication. The other options are incorrect: Option A suggests a fixed time interval for inhaler use, which may not be suitable for all clients and can lead to overuse. Option C, rinsing the mouth, is more relevant for corticosteroid inhalers to prevent oral thrush. Option D, using the inhaler while lying down, is not recommended as it may lead to improper drug delivery and is not the correct position for inhaler use.

2. A client is prescribed clopidogrel. What laboratory result should be monitored by the nurse?

• A. White blood cell count
• B. Creatinine
• C. Blood glucose
• D. Platelet count

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a client is prescribed clopidogrel, monitoring the platelet count is essential. Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet medication that works by preventing blood clots. Monitoring the platelet count is crucial in assessing the risk of thrombocytopenia, a potential side effect of clopidogrel. Monitoring white blood cell count, creatinine, or blood glucose is not directly related to the action or side effects of clopidogrel, making choices A, B, and C incorrect.

3. A client is receiving intravenous heparin therapy for the treatment of deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which laboratory test result should the LPN/LVN monitor to ensure the client is receiving a therapeutic dose?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT)
• B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
• C. International normalized ratio (INR)
• D. Platelet count

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct laboratory test result that the LPN/LVN should monitor to ensure the client is receiving a therapeutic dose of heparin therapy is the activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT). The aPTT test is specifically used to monitor heparin therapy, ensuring that the dose administered is within the therapeutic range. Monitoring aPTT helps to prevent complications such as bleeding or clot formation by maintaining the appropriate anticoagulant effect of heparin. Prothrombin time (PT) and International normalized ratio (INR) are more commonly used to monitor warfarin therapy, not heparin. Platelet count is not a direct indicator of heparin's therapeutic effect and is not used to monitor heparin therapy.

4. A client is admitted with coronary artery disease (CAD) and reports dyspnea at rest. What is the nurse's priority intervention?

• A. Elevate the head of the bed.
• B. Administer oxygen.
• C. Perform continuous ECG monitoring.
• D. Apply a nasal cannula.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse's priority intervention for a client with coronary artery disease (CAD) experiencing dyspnea at rest is to elevate the head of the bed. Elevating the head of the bed helps improve lung expansion and reduces the workload on the heart, aiding in respiratory effort and cardiac function. This intervention is crucial in enhancing oxygenation and optimizing cardiac output in individuals with CAD presenting with dyspnea. Administering oxygen (Choice B) is important but elevating the head of the bed takes precedence as it directly addresses the client's respiratory distress. Continuous ECG monitoring (Choice C) and applying a nasal cannula (Choice D) are relevant interventions but not the priority when a client with CAD reports dyspnea at rest.

5. The nurse is assisting in the care of a client with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who is on oxygen therapy. Which action should the nurse take to ensure the client's safety?

• A. Set the oxygen flow rate to 4 liters per minute.
• B. Remove oxygen while the client is eating.
• C. Ensure the client wears a nasal cannula instead of a face mask.
• D. Maintain the oxygen flow rate at the lowest level that relieves hypoxia.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: For clients with COPD, too much oxygen can suppress their drive to breathe, leading to hypoventilation. Therefore, the nurse should maintain the oxygen flow rate at the lowest level that relieves hypoxia to prevent complications while ensuring adequate oxygenation. Setting the oxygen flow rate too high (Choice A) can be detrimental for the client with COPD. Removing oxygen while the client is eating (Choice B) can compromise oxygenation, which is essential even during meals. While nasal cannulas are commonly used, the choice of oxygen delivery device depends on the client's needs; there may be situations where a face mask (Choice C) is more appropriate.

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