a nurse is teaching a client about the use of an albuterol inhaler which of the following instructions should the nurse include
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

LPN Pharmacology Practice Test

1. A client is being taught about the use of an albuterol inhaler. Which of the following instructions should be included?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Shaking the inhaler well before use is a crucial step in ensuring proper medication delivery. This action helps disperse the medication evenly within the device, optimizing the effectiveness of each dose. It ensures that the client receives the intended amount of medication. The other options are incorrect: Option A suggests a fixed time interval for inhaler use, which may not be suitable for all clients and can lead to overuse. Option C, rinsing the mouth, is more relevant for corticosteroid inhalers to prevent oral thrush. Option D, using the inhaler while lying down, is not recommended as it may lead to improper drug delivery and is not the correct position for inhaler use.

2. A client's serum calcium level is 7.9 mg/dL. The nurse is immediately concerned, knowing that this level could lead to which complication?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A serum calcium level below normal (hypocalcemia) can lead to cardiac arrhythmias and potentially cardiac arrest. Calcium plays a crucial role in cardiac muscle contractility, and low levels can disrupt normal heart function, potentially leading to fatal arrhythmias and cardiac arrest. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as hypocalcemia is not directly associated with stroke, high blood pressure, or urinary stone formation. The immediate concern with low serum calcium levels is the risk of cardiac complications.

3. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who has been taking isoniazid to treat tuberculosis. The healthcare professional should monitor the client for which of the following findings as an adverse effect of the medication?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Correct. Jaundice is a serious adverse effect of isoniazid due to liver damage. It is essential to monitor for signs of liver toxicity, such as jaundice, while the client is on this medication. Diarrhea is a common side effect of isoniazid, but it is not as serious as liver damage. Blurred vision and hearing loss are not typically associated with isoniazid use.

4. The healthcare professional is assisting in the care of a client diagnosed with heart failure. The client is receiving furosemide (Lasix). Which laboratory value should the healthcare professional monitor most closely?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to significant potassium loss, making it crucial to monitor the client's serum potassium levels. Hypokalemia (low potassium levels) can result from furosemide use, potentially leading to adverse effects such as cardiac dysrhythmias. Therefore, close monitoring of serum potassium levels is essential to prevent complications in clients receiving furosemide. Monitoring serum calcium, sodium, or glucose levels is not the priority when administering furosemide.

5. The nurse is assisting in the care of a client with a history of angina pectoris who is receiving nitroglycerin patches. Which instruction should the nurse reinforce with the client?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Removing the nitroglycerin patch at night is crucial to prevent the development of tolerance. Tolerance can occur when the body becomes accustomed to a constant level of the medication, reducing its effectiveness. By removing the patch at night, the client experiences a drug-free period, which helps prevent tolerance and maintains the effectiveness of the nitroglycerin for angina relief. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because applying the patch to a different site each time helps prevent skin irritation, using more than one patch is not recommended unless instructed by the healthcare provider, and showering with caution is important to prevent dislodging the patch, but it is not the most critical instruction to prevent tolerance development.

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