Nursing Elites

1. A client diagnosed with thrombophlebitis 1 day ago suddenly complains of chest pain and shortness of breath. The LPN/LVN understands that a life-threatening complication of this condition is which?

• A. Pneumonia
• B. Pulmonary edema
• C. Pulmonary embolism
• D. Myocardial infarction

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, Pulmonary embolism. Pulmonary embolism is a critical complication of thrombophlebitis where a blood clot dislodges and travels to the lungs, obstructing blood flow. This obstruction can lead to chest pain, shortness of breath, and potentially fatal consequences, making it a life-threatening emergency that requires prompt intervention. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because pneumonia, pulmonary edema, and myocardial infarction are not directly associated with thrombophlebitis and would not present with the sudden onset of chest pain and shortness of breath in this context.

2. The healthcare provider is teaching a client with hypertension about lifestyle modifications. Which recommendation should the healthcare provider include?

• A. Limit alcohol consumption to one drink per day.
• B. Increase sodium intake to maintain blood pressure.
• C. Exercise vigorously for at least 30 minutes daily.
• D. Avoid high potassium foods like bananas.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Limiting alcohol intake is an essential lifestyle modification recommended for managing hypertension. Excessive alcohol consumption can raise blood pressure, so limiting it to one drink per day is beneficial in controlling hypertension. Alcohol moderation is a key part of a heart-healthy lifestyle for individuals with high blood pressure. Choice B is incorrect because increasing sodium intake can actually worsen hypertension by retaining water and increasing blood pressure. Choice C is incorrect because while exercise is important for overall health, moderate-intensity exercise is recommended for individuals with hypertension to avoid excessive strain on the heart. Choice D is incorrect because high potassium foods like bananas are actually beneficial for individuals with hypertension as they can help lower blood pressure.

3. The nurse is assisting with the care of a client who is on a continuous heparin infusion for deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which laboratory test should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the therapy?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT)
• B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
• C. International normalized ratio (INR)
• D. Platelet count

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To evaluate the effectiveness of heparin therapy in a client with DVT, the nurse should monitor the activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT). The aPTT test helps ensure that the dose of heparin is within the therapeutic range, which is essential for preventing clot formation or excessive bleeding. Monitoring aPTT is crucial in managing patients on heparin therapy to maintain the delicate balance between preventing thrombosis and avoiding hemorrhage. Prothrombin time (PT) and International normalized ratio (INR) are more indicative of warfarin therapy effectiveness, not heparin. Platelet count assesses platelet levels and function, not the effectiveness of heparin therapy for DVT.

4. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who has been taking furosemide. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report to the provider?

• A. Weight gain
• B. Dry cough
• C. Hypokalemia
• D. Increased appetite

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Hypokalemia is a known side effect of furosemide, a loop diuretic. Furosemide causes increased excretion of potassium in the urine, leading to low potassium levels in the body which can result in serious complications such as cardiac dysrhythmias. Therefore, any signs or symptoms of hypokalemia should be promptly reported to the healthcare provider for appropriate management. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because weight gain, dry cough, and increased appetite are not typically associated with furosemide use and are not concerning side effects that require immediate reporting to the provider.

5. The healthcare provider assesses a client who has been prescribed furosemide (Lasix) for cardiac disease. Which electrocardiographic change would be a concern for a client taking a diuretic?

• A. Tall, spiked T waves
• B. A prolonged QT interval
• C. A widening QRS complex
• D. Presence of a U wave

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The presence of a U wave is often associated with hypokalemia, a possible side effect of diuretic therapy like furosemide. Hypokalemia can lead to U wave formation on an electrocardiogram, making the presence of U waves a concerning finding in clients taking diuretics. Tall, spiked T waves are typically seen in hyperkalemia, not hypokalemia. A prolonged QT interval is more commonly associated with conditions like Long QT syndrome or certain medications, not specifically with diuretics. A widening QRS complex is usually seen in conditions affecting the conduction system of the heart, such as bundle branch blocks, rather than being directly related to diuretic use.

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