ATI LPN
LPN Pharmacology Practice Questions
1. The client has atrial fibrillation and is receiving warfarin (Coumadin) therapy. Which laboratory test should be monitored to evaluate the effectiveness of the warfarin therapy?
- A. Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR)
- B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
- C. Complete blood count (CBC)
- D. Fibrinogen levels
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Monitoring the Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR) is crucial for assessing the effectiveness of warfarin therapy. These tests help determine the clotting ability of the blood and ensure that the client is within the desired therapeutic range to prevent clotting events or bleeding complications. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) (Choice B) is more commonly used to monitor heparin therapy, not warfarin. Complete blood count (CBC) (Choice C) and fibrinogen levels (Choice D) do not directly assess the effectiveness of warfarin therapy in the same way that PT and INR do.
2. When teaching a client with a new diagnosis of hepatitis about dietary management, which of the following statements should the nurse include?
- A. Increase your intake of high-protein foods.
- B. Decrease your intake of high-protein foods.
- C. Avoid foods that contain lactose.
- D. Increase your intake of dairy products.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: For a client with hepatitis, it is important to decrease the intake of high-protein foods. High-protein foods can be harder for the liver to process and may exacerbate symptoms or contribute to liver damage. Recommending a diet with moderate protein intake is beneficial for managing symptoms and promoting liver health. Choice A is incorrect as increasing high-protein foods can strain the liver. Choice C is not directly related to hepatitis unless there is an intolerance present. Choice D is also incorrect because increasing dairy products may not be suitable for all individuals with hepatitis, especially if there are underlying liver conditions that could be aggravated by certain dairy components.
3. A nurse is performing vision testing for a client following a head injury. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as a problem with pupil accommodation?
- A. Pupils constrict when shifting gaze from near to far
- B. Pupils constrict when shifting gaze from far to near
- C. Lack of change in pupil size when shifting gaze from near to far
- D. Lack of change in pupil size when shifting gaze from far to near
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Pupil accommodation problems are indicated by the lack of change in size when shifting gaze from far to near. The correct answer is D because in pupil accommodation, the pupils should constrict when shifting gaze from far to near in order to adjust for near vision. Choices A and B describe normal responses of pupil constriction when shifting gaze, which do not indicate a problem. Choice C is incorrect as it describes a normal response of pupil size change when shifting gaze from near to far.
4. A client undergoing radiation therapy is being taught about skin care by a nurse. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I will use a heating pad to soothe the skin
- B. I will avoid using perfumed lotions on the treated area
- C. I will apply cold compresses to the area
- D. I will scrub the area daily with soap and water
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because avoiding perfumed lotions is important to prevent skin irritation after radiation therapy. Using a heating pad (A) can further damage the skin, applying cold compresses (C) may not be recommended, and scrubbing the area daily with soap and water (D) can be too harsh on the skin, leading to further irritation and damage.
5. A nurse is teaching a client who is pregnant about the amniocentesis procedure. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. You do not need to have a full bladder for the procedure
- B. You will not receive magnesium sulfate before the procedure
- C. The procedure will take longer than 30 minutes to complete
- D. You should report if you experience any contractions after the procedure
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct statement to include in the teaching about amniocentesis is that the client should report if they experience any contractions after the procedure. This is crucial because contractions could indicate preterm labor or other complications following the amniocentesis. Choices A and B are incorrect as a full bladder is not required for the procedure, and magnesium sulfate is not typically given before an amniocentesis. Choice C is incorrect as the procedure usually takes about 20-30 minutes to complete.
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