ATI LPN
LPN Pharmacology Assessment A
1. The client is receiving anticoagulant therapy for atrial fibrillation. Which laboratory test should be monitored to determine the effectiveness of the therapy?
- A. Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR)
- B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
- C. Platelet count
- D. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR) are essential laboratory tests to monitor the effectiveness of anticoagulant therapy in clients with atrial fibrillation. These tests help ensure that the client is within the therapeutic range and are commonly used to assess the clotting ability of the blood. Monitoring PT and INR levels allows healthcare providers to adjust anticoagulant dosages as needed to prevent complications such as bleeding or thrombosis. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is more commonly used to monitor heparin therapy, not anticoagulant therapy for atrial fibrillation. Platelet count assesses the number of platelets in the blood and is not a direct indicator of anticoagulant therapy effectiveness. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) is a nonspecific marker of inflammation and is not used to monitor anticoagulant therapy.
2. A nurse in a prenatal clinic overhears a newly licensed nurse discussing conception with a client. Which of the following statements by the newly licensed nurse requires intervention by the nurse?
- A. Fertilization takes place in the outer third of the fallopian tube.
- B. Implantation occurs between 6 to 10 days after conception.
- C. Sperm remain viable in the woman's reproductive tract for 2 to 3 days.
- D. Bleeding or spotting can accompany implantation.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because implantation typically occurs between 6 to 10 days after conception, not 2 to 3 days. It is crucial for the nurse to intervene and provide accurate information to ensure the client receives correct education about conception. Choice A is correct as fertilization does occur in the outer third of the fallopian tube. Choice C is also accurate as sperm can remain viable in the woman's reproductive tract for 2 to 3 days. Choice D is correct as bleeding or spotting can indeed accompany implantation.
3. A client with diabetes is experiencing hyperglycemia. What is the nurse's priority?
- A. Administer insulin
- B. Encourage the client to exercise to lower blood glucose
- C. Encourage the client to drink water
- D. Administer glucagon
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to administer insulin. In hyperglycemia, there is an excess of glucose in the blood, which needs to be lowered. Insulin is the primary medication used to lower blood glucose levels by facilitating the uptake of glucose into cells. Encouraging the client to exercise may further increase blood glucose levels due to the release of stress hormones, so it is not the priority. While staying hydrated is important, it will not directly address the high blood glucose levels seen in hyperglycemia. Glucagon is used to treat severe hypoglycemia, not hyperglycemia, so it is not the priority in this situation.
4. A client is receiving ferrous sulfate. Which of the following should be monitored?
- A. Serum potassium levels
- B. Hemoglobin levels
- C. Liver function tests
- D. Blood glucose levels
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hemoglobin levels. Ferrous sulfate is used to treat iron deficiency anemia by increasing the body's iron stores. Monitoring hemoglobin levels is crucial as it reflects the effectiveness of the treatment in improving the client's anemia. Serum potassium levels (Choice A) are typically not directly affected by ferrous sulfate. Liver function tests (Choice C) and blood glucose levels (Choice D) are not routinely monitored when a client is receiving ferrous sulfate unless there are specific indications or pre-existing conditions that warrant such monitoring.
5. A patient is receiving discharge teaching for esophageal cancer and starting radiation therapy. What instruction should the healthcare provider include?
- A. Remove dye markings after each radiation treatment
- B. Apply a warm compress to the irradiated site
- C. Wear clothing over the area of radiation treatment
- D. Use a washcloth to bathe the treatment area
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct instruction for a patient starting radiation therapy for esophageal cancer is to wear clothing over the area of radiation treatment. This helps to prevent irritation and protect the skin. Removing dye markings after each treatment (choice A) is unnecessary and not typically part of the patient's self-care. Applying a warm compress (choice B) can exacerbate skin irritation caused by radiation. Using a washcloth to bathe the treatment area (choice D) can potentially irritate the skin further, making it important to avoid.
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