Nursing Elites

1. The client is receiving anticoagulant therapy for atrial fibrillation. Which laboratory test should be monitored to determine the effectiveness of the therapy?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR)
• B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
• C. Platelet count
• D. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR) are essential laboratory tests to monitor the effectiveness of anticoagulant therapy in clients with atrial fibrillation. These tests help ensure that the client is within the therapeutic range and are commonly used to assess the clotting ability of the blood. Monitoring PT and INR levels allows healthcare providers to adjust anticoagulant dosages as needed to prevent complications such as bleeding or thrombosis. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is more commonly used to monitor heparin therapy, not anticoagulant therapy for atrial fibrillation. Platelet count assesses the number of platelets in the blood and is not a direct indicator of anticoagulant therapy effectiveness. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) is a nonspecific marker of inflammation and is not used to monitor anticoagulant therapy.

2. A client has a new prescription for lisinopril. Which of the following findings should be reported to the provider by the nurse?

• A. Weight gain
• B. Dry cough
• C. Hypokalemia
• D. Increased appetite

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B - Dry cough. Lisinopril is known to cause a persistent dry cough as a common side effect. This adverse reaction can be bothersome to the client and may necessitate discontinuation of the medication. Weight gain, hypokalemia, and increased appetite are not typically associated with lisinopril and would not be as concerning as a dry cough when assessing for adverse effects.

3. A client is receiving morphine for pain. Which of the following assessments is the priority?

• A. Urine output
• B. Pupil reaction
• C. Respiratory rate
• D. Bowel sounds

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Respiratory rate. Monitoring the respiratory rate is the priority assessment for a client receiving morphine due to the risk of respiratory depression. Morphine is a potent opioid that can cause respiratory depression, which is a serious adverse effect that can be life-threatening. Assessing the client's respiratory rate is crucial to detect any signs of respiratory depression early and intervene promptly. Assessing urine output is important but not as critical as monitoring for respiratory depression with morphine. Pupil reaction and bowel sounds are also important assessments but do not take precedence over monitoring the respiratory rate when a client is on morphine.

4. When educating a client with a new prescription for nitroglycerin, which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Store the medication in a cool, dark place.
• B. Take the medication before bedtime.
• C. Take the medication with food.
• D. Take the medication at the first sign of chest pain.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client with a new prescription for nitroglycerin is to take the medication at the first sign of chest pain. Nitroglycerin is a vasodilator used to relieve chest pain associated with angina. Taking it at the onset of chest pain ensures prompt relief by dilating blood vessels and increasing blood flow to the heart muscle. Storing nitroglycerin in a cool, dark place helps maintain its potency, while taking it with food can alter its absorption. Timing the medication with bedtime is not necessary, but prompt administration at the first sign of chest pain is crucial for effective management of angina. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because storing the medication in a cool, dark place, taking it before bedtime, and taking it with food are not essential instructions for nitroglycerin use. The priority is to administer it promptly when chest pain occurs to achieve optimal therapeutic effects.

5. The healthcare professional is assisting in the care of a client diagnosed with deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which instruction should be reinforced to prevent complications?

• A. Elevate the affected leg using pillows.
• B. Perform leg exercises while sitting.
• C. Wear snug compression stockings.
• D. Avoid applying ice packs to injuries.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Elevating the affected leg using pillows is crucial in managing deep vein thrombosis (DVT) as it helps reduce swelling and promote venous return, thereby decreasing the risk of complications such as pulmonary embolism. This position aids in improving blood circulation and preventing blood clots from forming or worsening in the affected leg. Performing leg exercises while sitting might increase the risk of dislodging a blood clot. While snug compression stockings are beneficial, the primary focus should be on elevation. Avoiding ice packs on injuries is unrelated to DVT management.

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