Nursing Elites

1. The client is receiving anticoagulant therapy for atrial fibrillation. Which laboratory test should be monitored to determine the effectiveness of the therapy?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR)
• B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
• C. Platelet count
• D. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR) are essential laboratory tests to monitor the effectiveness of anticoagulant therapy in clients with atrial fibrillation. These tests help ensure that the client is within the therapeutic range and are commonly used to assess the clotting ability of the blood. Monitoring PT and INR levels allows healthcare providers to adjust anticoagulant dosages as needed to prevent complications such as bleeding or thrombosis. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is more commonly used to monitor heparin therapy, not anticoagulant therapy for atrial fibrillation. Platelet count assesses the number of platelets in the blood and is not a direct indicator of anticoagulant therapy effectiveness. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) is a nonspecific marker of inflammation and is not used to monitor anticoagulant therapy.

2. A client has a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. Take the medication in the morning.
• B. Monitor for muscle weakness.
• C. Eat foods high in potassium.
• D. Expect weight gain.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct statement that the nurse should include in the teaching for a client prescribed furosemide is to eat foods high in potassium. Furosemide can lead to potassium depletion (hypokalemia) due to increased urine output. Consuming potassium-rich foods like bananas, oranges, spinach, and potatoes can help prevent this electrolyte imbalance. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because taking furosemide in the morning, monitoring for muscle weakness, and expecting weight gain are not directly related to the potential side effects or necessary dietary adjustments when taking furosemide.

3. When teaching a client who has a new prescription for metformin, which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take the medication with food.
• B. Monitor for signs of hyperglycemia.
• C. Increase your fluid intake.
• D. Expect a metallic taste in your mouth.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client starting metformin is to increase fluid intake. This is crucial to prevent gastrointestinal discomfort, a common side effect of metformin. Adequate hydration helps reduce the risk of gastrointestinal upset and ensures the medication is well-tolerated. Option A is generally true for metformin but is not as essential as maintaining proper hydration. Option B is important but not directly related to starting metformin. Option D is incorrect as a metallic taste in the mouth is not typically associated with metformin.

4. A 24-year-old man seeks medical attention for complaints of claudication in the arch of the foot. The nurse also notes superficial thrombophlebitis of the lower leg. What should the nurse check the client for next?

• A. Smoking history
• B. Recent exposure to allergens
• C. History of recent insect bites
• D. Familial tendency toward peripheral vascular disease

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this case, the nurse should check the client's smoking history next. Smoking is a significant risk factor for peripheral vascular disease, leading to the development of thrombophlebitis and claudication. It is important to assess this risk factor as it can significantly impact the client's vascular health and the progression of their current symptoms. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they are not directly related to the symptoms described by the client. Recent exposure to allergens or insect bites would typically present with different symptoms, and familial tendency toward peripheral vascular disease is not the immediate concern in this case.

5. The LPN/LVN is reinforcing discharge instructions to a client who has been prescribed nitroglycerin sublingual tablets for angina. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. I will keep my nitroglycerin tablets in the original glass bottle.
• B. I will sit or lie down when I take a nitroglycerin tablet.
• C. I will take a nitroglycerin tablet every 5 minutes if chest pain persists, up to a total of 3 tablets.
• D. I can swallow the nitroglycerin tablet with a glass of water if it does not dissolve quickly.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Nitroglycerin sublingual tablets should not be swallowed; they must dissolve under the tongue to be effective. Choice A is correct as nitroglycerin tablets should be stored in their original glass container to prevent degradation. Choice B is correct as sitting or lying down when taking a nitroglycerin tablet helps prevent dizziness or fainting due to a sudden drop in blood pressure. Choice C is correct as taking a nitroglycerin tablet every 5 minutes for a maximum of 3 tablets is the correct protocol for managing angina symptoms.

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