a nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a new prescription for lisinopril which of the following instructions should the nurse include
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

LPN Pharmacology Questions

1. A client has a new prescription for lisinopril. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to monitor their blood pressure daily. Lisinopril is known to cause hypotension, so monitoring blood pressure regularly is essential to detect any potential issues early on. Choice B is incorrect as lisinopril is usually taken on an empty stomach. Choice C is incorrect as lisinopril can increase potassium levels, so additional intake of potassium-rich foods may lead to hyperkalemia. Choice D is incorrect because grapefruit juice can interact with lisinopril, leading to adverse effects.

2. A client with coronary artery disease is prescribed a low-cholesterol diet. The nurse should reinforce which dietary selection made by the client?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Oatmeal with fresh fruit is a suitable choice for a client with coronary artery disease prescribed a low-cholesterol diet. This option is high in fiber and nutrients, making it a heart-healthy selection. Oatmeal and fresh fruits are low in cholesterol and saturated fats, which helps in managing coronary artery disease. Choices A, C, and D are higher in cholesterol and saturated fats, which can be detrimental for individuals with this condition.

3. A client is admitted with an arterial ischemic leg ulcer. The nurse expects to note that this ulcer has which typical characteristic?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Arterial ischemic ulcers are typically characterized by being deep and painful, often with a pale or necrotic base. The lack of adequate blood flow leads to tissue damage, resulting in these ulcers having a deep appearance and causing significant pain to the individual. The other options are not commonly associated with arterial ischemic ulcers; a dark pink base, very slight pain, or brown pigmentation of surrounding skin are not typical features of this type of ulcer.

4. The client is receiving anticoagulant therapy for atrial fibrillation. Which laboratory test should be monitored to determine the effectiveness of the therapy?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR) are essential laboratory tests to monitor the effectiveness of anticoagulant therapy in clients with atrial fibrillation. These tests help ensure that the client is within the therapeutic range and are commonly used to assess the clotting ability of the blood. Monitoring PT and INR levels allows healthcare providers to adjust anticoagulant dosages as needed to prevent complications such as bleeding or thrombosis. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is more commonly used to monitor heparin therapy, not anticoagulant therapy for atrial fibrillation. Platelet count assesses the number of platelets in the blood and is not a direct indicator of anticoagulant therapy effectiveness. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) is a nonspecific marker of inflammation and is not used to monitor anticoagulant therapy.

5. A nurse is assessing a client who has been taking levothyroxine for hypothyroidism. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Heat intolerance. Heat intolerance is a sign of levothyroxine toxicity and requires immediate attention. Weight loss may actually be an expected outcome of levothyroxine therapy as it can help regulate metabolism in hypothyroidism. Insomnia can occur as a side effect of levothyroxine but is not as concerning as heat intolerance. Dry skin is a common symptom of hypothyroidism and may improve with levothyroxine therapy, so it is not a priority finding to report to the provider.

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