Nursing Elites

1. A client who had a myocardial infarction (MI) two days ago reports chest pain radiating to the left arm. What should the nurse do immediately?

• A. Administer morphine
• B. Obtain an electrocardiogram (ECG)
• C. Apply oxygen via nasal cannula
• D. Administer sublingual nitroglycerin

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Obtaining an ECG is crucial in this situation because it helps in assessing for potential complications, such as a recurrent MI or ongoing ischemia. This diagnostic test provides valuable information to guide further interventions and treatment. Administering morphine, oxygen, or nitroglycerin may be necessary but obtaining an ECG takes precedence to evaluate the cardiac status and determine the appropriate course of action. Administering morphine without assessing the current cardiac status through an ECG can mask important diagnostic clues. Applying oxygen and administering nitroglycerin are supportive measures that can follow the ECG to address potential hypoxia and ischemic pain relief, respectively.

2. A client with a history of angina pectoris reports chest pain after climbing stairs. What should be the nurse's first action?

• A. Administer oxygen.
• B. Administer nitroglycerin.
• C. Sit the client down and rest.
• D. Check the client's blood pressure.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for a client experiencing anginal pain, like chest pain after climbing stairs, is to sit the client down and have them rest. Resting reduces myocardial oxygen demand, which can help relieve anginal pain. Administering oxygen or nitroglycerin may be appropriate interventions after the client has been seated and rested. Checking the client's blood pressure is important but not the immediate priority when a client is experiencing anginal pain. Therefore, the first action should be to sit the client down and allow them to rest.

3. What predisposing factor most likely contributed to the proximal end of the femur fracture in a 62-year-old woman who lives alone and tripped on a rug in her home?

• A. Failing eyesight leading to an unsafe environment
• B. Renal osteodystrophy from chronic kidney disease (CKD)
• C. Osteoporosis from declining hormone levels
• D. Cerebral vessel changes causing transient ischemic attacks

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most likely predisposing factor contributing to the proximal end of the femur fracture in a 62-year-old woman is osteoporosis resulting from declining hormone levels. Osteoporosis weakens the bones, making them more susceptible to fractures, especially in older adults, particularly women. In this case, the fracture can be attributed to the bone density loss associated with osteoporosis, which is a common concern in postmenopausal women. Choices A, B, and D are less likely to have directly contributed to the femur fracture in this scenario. Failing eyesight may increase the risk of falls but does not directly weaken the bones. Renal osteodystrophy affects bone health but is less common in this age group. Cerebral vessel changes causing transient ischemic attacks are related to vascular issues, not bone strength.

4. The healthcare professional is collecting data on a client who was just admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of coronary artery disease (CAD). The client reveals having been under a great deal of stress recently. What should the healthcare professional do next?

• A. Ask whether the client wants to seek counseling or therapy.
• B. Explore with the client the sources of stress in their life.
• C. Reassure the client that stress is common in today's world.
• D. Ask the client to make a list of stressors for later evaluation.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: It is important for the healthcare professional to explore the sources of stress with the client to develop an effective stress management plan tailored to the individual's specific stressors. By understanding the sources of stress, healthcare professionals can identify triggers, implement appropriate interventions, and support the client's overall well-being. Option A is not the immediate next step as exploring the sources of stress should come before suggesting counseling or therapy. Option C is dismissive of the client's feelings and does not address the need for personalized stress management. Option D delays the process by asking the client to make a list without actively engaging in a discussion to identify stressors.

5. A client with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is prescribed warfarin (Coumadin). The nurse should include which instruction in the discharge teaching?

• A. Take the medication at the same time each day
• B. Avoid green leafy vegetables in your diet
• C. Increase your intake of vitamin K-rich foods
• D. Stop the medication if you notice any bruising

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Taking warfarin at the same time each day is crucial to maintain consistent blood levels and ensure the effectiveness of the medication in preventing clot formation. Consistent timing helps in monitoring and adjusting the dosage as needed to keep the international normalized ratio (INR) within the therapeutic range to prevent clotting events or excessive bleeding. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Avoiding green leafy vegetables is a misconception; while they are high in vitamin K which antagonizes warfarin, they should not be avoided but consumed in moderation. Increasing vitamin K-rich foods can interfere with warfarin's effectiveness. Stopping the medication due to bruising can be dangerous as it may indicate a clotting problem that the medication is intended to prevent.

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