Nursing Elites

1. A client has a new prescription for amlodipine. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take the medication with food.
• B. Monitor blood pressure daily.
• C. Increase intake of potassium-rich foods.
• D. Avoid consuming grapefruit juice.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Monitor blood pressure daily.' When a client is prescribed amlodipine, it is essential to monitor their blood pressure regularly. Amlodipine is known to cause hypotension, so monitoring blood pressure helps ensure it stays within the desired range to prevent complications associated with low blood pressure. Choice A is incorrect because amlodipine can be taken with or without food. Choice C is incorrect as increasing potassium intake is not a specific instruction related to amlodipine. Choice D is incorrect as grapefruit juice interactions are not typically a concern with amlodipine.

2. A client has a new prescription for nitroglycerin. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the discharge teaching?

• A. Store the medication in a cool, dark place.
• B. Take the medication at bedtime.
• C. Take the medication on an empty stomach.
• D. Take the medication at the first sign of chest pain.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct instruction to include in the discharge teaching for a client with a new prescription for nitroglycerin is to take the medication at the first sign of chest pain. Nitroglycerin is a vasodilator that helps relax blood vessels, increasing blood flow to the heart muscle and reducing the workload of the heart. Taking it at the onset of chest pain helps alleviate angina symptoms quickly and effectively. Storing the medication in a cool, dark place (Choice A) is not a critical instruction for this medication. Taking the medication at bedtime (Choice B) or on an empty stomach (Choice C) is not relevant to the administration of nitroglycerin for angina relief.

3. A client is taking haloperidol. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Weight gain
• B. Dry mouth
• C. Tremors
• D. Tardive dyskinesia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Tardive dyskinesia. Tardive dyskinesia is a serious side effect associated with the long-term use of haloperidol. It is characterized by involuntary movements of the face, tongue, and extremities. Early detection is crucial as tardive dyskinesia may be irreversible and should be reported promptly to the healthcare provider for further evaluation and management. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because weight gain, dry mouth, and tremors are common side effects of haloperidol but are not as concerning as tardive dyskinesia. While they should still be monitored and managed, tardive dyskinesia requires immediate attention due to its potentially irreversible nature.

4. The nurse is caring for a client receiving anticoagulant therapy. Which instruction should the nurse reinforce with the client to prevent bleeding complications?

• A. Use a soft-bristle toothbrush and electric razor.
• B. Increase your intake of vitamin K-rich foods.
• C. Take aspirin if you have a headache.
• D. Avoid using ice packs for injuries.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction to prevent bleeding complications in a client on anticoagulant therapy is to use a soft-bristle toothbrush and an electric razor. These implements help reduce the risk of bleeding by being gentle on the skin and reducing the chances of cuts or abrasions that could lead to bleeding in individuals on anticoagulants. Choice B is incorrect because increasing intake of vitamin K-rich foods can interfere with the action of anticoagulants. Choice C is incorrect as aspirin is a blood thinner and can increase the risk of bleeding when combined with anticoagulant therapy. Choice D is incorrect as ice packs can help reduce bleeding and swelling in injuries, but in a client on anticoagulant therapy, it is important to avoid potential trauma to the skin that could lead to bleeding.

5. Why should the client diagnosed with rheumatic heart disease be advised to notify the dentist before dental procedures?

• A. The client requires prophylactic antibiotics before treatment.
• B. The client may experience dysrhythmias with high-speed drills.
• C. The client may have an adverse reaction to lidocaine with epinephrine.
• D. The client may develop heart failure during stressful events.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Clients with rheumatic heart disease are at risk for infective endocarditis, a serious infection of the heart lining or valves. They need prophylactic antibiotics before invasive procedures, including dental work, to prevent this life-threatening complication. While dysrhythmias with high-speed drills, adverse reactions to local anesthesia, and the risk of heart failure during stressful events are all concerns for clients with heart conditions, the primary reason for notifying the dentist before dental procedures in rheumatic heart disease is the need for prophylactic antibiotics to prevent infective endocarditis.

Similar Questions