Nursing Elites

1. A client with a new prescription for a dry-powder inhaler (DPI) is receiving teaching from a healthcare provider. Which of the following statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I will shake the inhaler before use.
• B. I will take the medication with food.
• C. I will inhale the medication quickly.
• D. I will use a spacer with the inhaler.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Choosing option C, 'I will inhale the medication quickly,' demonstrates an understanding of DPI use. Inhaling the medication quickly ensures effective delivery of the dry powder to the lungs, maximizing its therapeutic effects. Options A, B, and D are incorrect as shaking the DPI, taking it with food, and using a spacer are not recommended practices for DPI administration. Shaking a DPI can cause clumping or uneven dispersion of the medication, taking it with food may not affect its efficacy but can increase the risk of side effects, and using a spacer is not necessary for DPIs which are breath-actuated and do not require coordination with inhalation through a spacer.

2. A client with a seizure disorder is under the care of a nurse. Which of the following precautions should the nurse include in the plan?

• A. Place a padded tongue depressor at the bedside.
• B. Keep the bed in the lowest position.
• C. Restrain the client during a seizure.
• D. Keep the lights dim in the client's room.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Keeping the bed in the lowest position is crucial for ensuring the safety of the client during a seizure. Lowering the bed reduces the risk of injury if the client falls during a seizure episode. It is important not to restrain the client during a seizure as it can lead to further injury. Placing a padded tongue depressor at the bedside is not appropriate and can pose a risk of injury if used incorrectly. Keeping the lights dim in the client's room is not directly related to safety during a seizure and is not a standard precaution.

3. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who has anemia. Which of the following findings should the healthcare provider expect?

• A. Bradycardia.
• B. Pallor.
• C. Hypertension.
• D. Jaundice.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Pallor is a common finding in clients with anemia due to decreased hemoglobin levels. Anemia leads to reduced oxygen-carrying capacity in the blood, resulting in pale skin and mucous membranes, which is known as pallor. Bradycardia, hypertension, and jaundice are typically not associated with anemia.

4. While assessing a client with fluid volume deficit, which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Increased skin turgor
• C. Dry mucous membranes
• D. Hypertension

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Dry mucous membranes are a classic clinical manifestation of fluid volume deficit. Dehydration leads to reduced fluid intake or excessive fluid loss, resulting in decreased moisture in the mucous membranes. Bradycardia, increased skin turgor, and hypertension are not typically associated with fluid volume deficit. Bradycardia is more commonly seen in conditions like hypothyroidism or increased intracranial pressure. Increased skin turgor is a sign of dehydration, not deficit. Hypertension is not a typical finding in fluid volume deficit.

5. A client is being assessed for dehydration. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Elevated blood pressure
• B. Increased skin turgor
• C. Dark-colored urine
• D. Bradypnea

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Dark-colored urine is a common sign of dehydration as the urine becomes concentrated. Dehydration leads to reduced fluid intake or excessive fluid loss, causing the urine to be darker in color due to increased urine concentration. Elevated blood pressure (Choice A) is not typically associated with dehydration; instead, dehydration often leads to low blood pressure. Increased skin turgor (Choice B) is actually a sign of good hydration, not dehydration. Bradypnea (Choice D), which refers to abnormally slow breathing, is not a common finding in dehydration.

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