ATI LPN
LPN Fundamentals Practice Questions
1. When preparing to insert an NG tube for a client who requires gastric decompression, which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Position the client with the head of the bed elevated to 30° prior to insertion
- B. Measure the tube from the client's nose to the earlobe to the xiphoid process
- C. Lubricate the entire length of the tube with water-soluble lubricant
- D. Instruct the client to cough during insertion
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Measuring the tube from the client's nose to the earlobe to the xiphoid process ensures the tube is inserted to the correct depth. This measurement helps prevent complications such as tube misplacement or lung insertion. Positioning the client with the head of the bed elevated to 30° is important to facilitate easier insertion but is not the most crucial step. Lubricating the entire length of the tube with water-soluble lubricant is essential for smooth insertion but is not the most critical action. Instructing the client to cough during insertion is not necessary and may lead to unnecessary discomfort.
2. A client has been on bed rest for 3 days. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication that the client is ready to ambulate?
- A. The client uses a walker to move from the bed to the chair.
- B. The client has a strong cough.
- C. The client can bear weight on both legs.
- D. The client has a normal respiratory rate.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The ability to bear weight on both legs indicates muscle strength and stability necessary for ambulation. This skill is crucial for the client to support their body weight and move independently when standing or walking. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because using a walker, having a strong cough, or having a normal respiratory rate do not directly indicate the readiness to ambulate. The key factor in determining readiness for ambulation is the client's ability to bear weight on both legs, demonstrating the necessary strength for standing and walking.
3. In an emergency department, a provider is assessing a client with an acute head injury following a motor-vehicle crash. Which of the following findings should be prioritized?
- A. A Glasgow Coma Scale score of 13
- B. Clear fluid leaking from the nose
- C. Nausea and vomiting
- D. Anisocoria
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The priority finding is the clear fluid leaking from the nose, which could indicate a cerebrospinal fluid leak and potential brain injury. This requires immediate attention to assess for possible cerebrospinal fluid leak, which is a serious complication of head trauma and needs prompt intervention to prevent further complications. While a Glasgow Coma Scale score of 13 may indicate a mild alteration in consciousness, it is not as urgent as assessing for a cerebrospinal fluid leak. Nausea and vomiting are common symptoms after head injuries but do not take precedence over assessing for a potential cerebrospinal fluid leak. Anisocoria (unequal pupils) is also important to note but is not as urgent as identifying a possible cerebrospinal fluid leak in this scenario.
4. A client with a new diagnosis of cirrhosis is receiving dietary management education from a nurse. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. You should increase your intake of sodium-rich foods.
- B. You should decrease your intake of sodium-rich foods.
- C. You should avoid foods that contain lactose.
- D. You should increase your intake of dairy products.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Reducing the intake of sodium-rich foods is beneficial for managing fluid retention and symptoms of cirrhosis. Excessive sodium can lead to fluid buildup in the body, worsening edema and ascites commonly associated with cirrhosis. Therefore, advising the client to decrease their intake of sodium-rich foods is crucial in the dietary management of cirrhosis. Option A is incorrect as increasing sodium intake would exacerbate fluid retention. Option C is irrelevant to cirrhosis management unless the client has lactose intolerance. Option D is incorrect as increasing dairy product intake may not be suitable for all patients with cirrhosis, especially if they have complications like hepatic encephalopathy.
5. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer a subcutaneous injection. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take?
- A. Use a 1-inch needle.
- B. Insert the needle at a 90-degree angle.
- C. Use a tuberculin syringe.
- D. Aspirate before injecting.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When administering a subcutaneous injection, it is important to insert the needle at a 90-degree angle to ensure proper medication delivery into the subcutaneous tissue. This angle helps prevent the medication from being injected too deeply or too superficially, ensuring optimal absorption and therapeutic effect. Choice A is incorrect because the needle length for a subcutaneous injection is typically shorter, around ⅝ to 1 inch. Choice C is incorrect as a tuberculin syringe is not commonly used for subcutaneous injections. Choice D is also incorrect as aspiration is not necessary for subcutaneous injections since there are minimal blood vessels in the subcutaneous tissue.
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