Nursing Elites

1. A client has a new prescription for a metered-dose inhaler (MDI). Which of the following statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I will shake the inhaler before use.
• B. I will breathe out forcefully after inhaling the medication.
• C. I will take the medication with food.
• D. I will use a spacer with the inhaler.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'I will shake the inhaler before use.' Shaking the inhaler before use is crucial to ensure proper mixing of the medication inside the inhaler. This action helps to disperse the medication evenly, allowing for consistent dosing during inhalation. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Breathing out forcefully after inhaling the medication, taking the medication with food, and using a spacer with the inhaler are not related to the correct use of a metered-dose inhaler. These actions may not lead to optimal medication delivery and do not demonstrate an understanding of the proper technique for using an MDI.

2. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer a subcutaneous injection. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take?

• A. Use a 1-inch needle.
• B. Insert the needle at a 90-degree angle.
• C. Use a tuberculin syringe.
• D. Aspirate before injecting.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When administering a subcutaneous injection, it is important to insert the needle at a 90-degree angle to ensure proper medication delivery into the subcutaneous tissue. This angle helps prevent the medication from being injected too deeply or too superficially, ensuring optimal absorption and therapeutic effect. Choice A is incorrect because the needle length for a subcutaneous injection is typically shorter, around ⅝ to 1 inch. Choice C is incorrect as a tuberculin syringe is not commonly used for subcutaneous injections. Choice D is also incorrect as aspiration is not necessary for subcutaneous injections since there are minimal blood vessels in the subcutaneous tissue.

3. What action is required by law when preparing to administer a controlled substance?

• A. Verify the client’s identification using two identifiers.
• B. Document the medication administration in the client’s chart immediately.
• C. Return any unused portion of the medication to the pharmacy.
• D. Have a second nurse witness the disposal of any unused portion.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Having a second nurse witness the disposal of any unused portion of a controlled substance is a legal requirement to ensure proper disposal, prevent diversion, and maintain accountability. This practice helps in reducing the risk of misuse or unauthorized access to controlled substances, enhancing patient safety, and complying with legal regulations and standards.

4. What action should the healthcare provider take for a patient with a chest tube?

• A. Strip the drainage tubing every 4 hours.
• B. Keep the drainage system below the level of the patient's chest.
• C. Clamp the chest tube when ambulating the patient.
• D. Ensure the water seal chamber is filled to the prescribed level.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Ensuring the water seal chamber is filled to the prescribed level is essential for the chest tube's effective functioning. This maintains the integrity of the system, prevents air from entering the pleural space, and facilitates proper drainage. Stripping the drainage tubing, keeping the drainage system below the chest level, or clamping the chest tube during ambulation are not recommended practices and can lead to complications.

5. A healthcare provider is caring for a client who has acute renal failure. Which of the following laboratory results should the healthcare provider expect?

• A. Decreased blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
• B. Decreased creatinine
• C. Increased potassium
• D. Increased calcium

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In acute renal failure, the kidneys are unable to excrete potassium efficiently, which can lead to hyperkalemia. As a result, an increased potassium level is a common finding in clients with acute renal failure. Hyperkalemia can have serious cardiac effects, making it essential for healthcare providers to monitor and manage potassium levels closely in clients with renal impairment. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because in acute renal failure, blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine levels typically rise due to decreased renal function. Calcium levels are more likely to be decreased in acute renal failure due to impaired activation of vitamin D and subsequent decreased calcium absorption.

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