Nursing Elites

1. When assessing a client with diabetes mellitus experiencing DKA, which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Tremors
• B. Urine retention
• C. Kussmaul respirations
• D. Bradypnea

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Kussmaul respirations are a type of deep and labored breathing pattern associated with severe metabolic acidosis, commonly observed in diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). In DKA, the body tries to compensate for the acidic environment by increasing the respiratory rate, resulting in Kussmaul respirations. This helps eliminate excess carbon dioxide and reduce the acidity of the blood. Tremors (Choice A) are not typically associated with DKA. Urine retention (Choice B) is not a common finding in DKA; in fact, clients with DKA often have polyuria due to the osmotic diuresis caused by high blood glucose levels. Bradypnea (Choice D), which is abnormally slow breathing rate, is not a characteristic finding in DKA where the respiratory rate is usually increased to compensate for metabolic acidosis.

2. A client is receiving enteral feedings through an NG tube. Which of the following actions should be taken to prevent aspiration?

• A. Monitor gastric residuals every 4 hours.
• B. Position the client in a semi-Fowler's position.
• C. Check for tube placement by auscultating air after feeding.
• D. Warm the formula to body temperature before feeding.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Monitoring gastric residuals every 4 hours is essential to assess the stomach's ability to empty properly, reducing the risk of aspiration. It helps in determining if the feedings are being tolerated by the client and if adjustments are needed in the feeding regimen. Positioning the client in a semi-Fowler's position helps prevent reflux and aspiration by promoting proper digestion and emptying of the stomach contents. Checking for tube placement by auscultating air after feeding confirms correct tube placement in the stomach. Warming the formula to body temperature before feeding enhances client comfort but does not directly prevent aspiration. Therefore, the correct answer is to monitor gastric residuals to prevent aspiration, as it directly assesses the stomach's ability to empty properly and the tolerance of the feedings.

3. A client has a new diagnosis of lactose intolerance and is receiving teaching from a nurse about dietary management. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. You should avoid foods that contain lactose.
• B. You should increase your intake of high-fiber foods.
• C. You should avoid foods that contain gluten.
• D. You should increase your intake of dairy products.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct statement for the nurse to include in teaching a client with lactose intolerance is to avoid foods that contain lactose. Lactose intolerance results from the body's inability to digest lactose, a sugar found in dairy products. By avoiding foods containing lactose, the client can manage symptoms and prevent complications associated with lactose intolerance. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Increasing intake of high-fiber foods (choice B) may be beneficial for general health but is not directly related to lactose intolerance. Avoiding gluten (choice C) is necessary for individuals with celiac disease, not lactose intolerance. Increasing intake of dairy products (choice D) would worsen symptoms in individuals with lactose intolerance due to the lactose content.

4. A client is being assessed for dehydration. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Elevated blood pressure
• B. Increased skin turgor
• C. Dark-colored urine
• D. Bradypnea

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Dark-colored urine is a common sign of dehydration as the urine becomes concentrated. Dehydration leads to reduced fluid intake or excessive fluid loss, causing the urine to be darker in color due to increased urine concentration. Elevated blood pressure (Choice A) is not typically associated with dehydration; instead, dehydration often leads to low blood pressure. Increased skin turgor (Choice B) is actually a sign of good hydration, not dehydration. Bradypnea (Choice D), which refers to abnormally slow breathing, is not a common finding in dehydration.

5. When planning care for a client with a pressure ulcer, which intervention should the nurse include in the plan?

• A. Massage the reddened area.
• B. Apply a donut-shaped cushion.
• C. Reposition the client every 3 hours.
• D. Use a transparent film dressing.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with a pressure ulcer is to use a transparent film dressing. This dressing provides a protective barrier against external contaminants while allowing for wound inspection, promoting healing. Massaging the reddened area can cause further damage to the skin and should be avoided. Donut-shaped cushions can increase pressure on the ulcer site rather than alleviate it. Repositioning the client every 2 hours is a preventive measure for pressure ulcers, but once an ulcer has developed, using a transparent film dressing is a more appropriate intervention to facilitate healing and protect the wound site.

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