ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment Form B
1. A client has been prescribed ferrous sulfate. Which instruction should the nurse include?
- A. Take with meals
- B. Take with a glass of orange juice
- C. Take at bedtime
- D. Take with milk
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed ferrous sulfate is to take it with a glass of orange juice. Vitamin C, found in orange juice, enhances the absorption of iron, making it more effective. Taking ferrous sulfate with meals, at bedtime, or with milk can decrease its absorption and effectiveness, so these options are incorrect.
2. A nurse is planning care for a newly admitted adolescent with bacterial meningitis. What intervention should the nurse include?
- A. Initiate droplet precautions
- B. Assist the client to a supine position
- C. Perform a Glasgow Coma Scale every 24 hours
- D. Recommend prophylactic acyclovir for the client's family
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct intervention for a newly admitted adolescent with bacterial meningitis is to initiate droplet precautions. Bacterial meningitis is highly contagious, and droplet precautions are necessary to prevent the spread of infection. Assisting the client to a supine position (Choice B) is not directly related to managing bacterial meningitis. Performing a Glasgow Coma Scale every 24 hours (Choice C) may be important to assess the client's neurological status but is not the priority intervention in preventing the spread of infection. Recommending prophylactic acyclovir for the client's family (Choice D) is not a standard practice in the care of a patient with bacterial meningitis.
3. A healthcare professional is reviewing the health history of an older adult who has a hip fracture. What is a risk factor for developing pressure injuries?
- A. Dehydration
- B. Urinary incontinence
- C. Poor nutrition
- D. Poor tissue perfusion
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Urinary incontinence is a risk factor for developing pressure injuries due to prolonged skin exposure to moisture and irritants. Dehydration (choice A) can contribute to skin dryness but is not a direct risk factor for pressure injuries. Poor nutrition (choice C) can affect wound healing but is not specifically linked to pressure injuries. Poor tissue perfusion (choice D) can increase the risk of tissue damage but is not as directly associated with pressure injuries as urinary incontinence.
4. A client has been prescribed albuterol. Which of the following is a priority adverse effect the nurse should monitor?
- A. Tachycardia
- B. Bradycardia
- C. Dizziness
- D. Hypertension
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Albuterol, a beta-2 adrenergic agonist, can lead to tachycardia due to its stimulant effect on beta-2 receptors in the heart. Monitoring for tachycardia is crucial as it can be a sign of excessive sympathetic stimulation and may lead to severe complications. Bradycardia, dizziness, and hypertension are less likely adverse effects of albuterol, making them lower priority for monitoring in this context.
5. A client with staphylococcus epidermidis is prescribed vancomycin. Identify the adverse effect associated with this antibiotic therapy.
- A. Hepatotoxicity
- B. Constipation
- C. Infusion reaction
- D. Immunosuppression
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct adverse effect associated with vancomycin therapy is an infusion reaction, known as Red Man Syndrome. This reaction presents with rashes, flushing, tachycardia, and hypotension. It is essential to administer vancomycin over at least 60 minutes to prevent these symptoms. Hepatotoxicity, constipation, and immunosuppression are not commonly associated with vancomycin use. Ototoxicity and renal toxicity are significant risks with prolonged vancomycin therapy.
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